1.
Skin
surface in man 175 cm high and 75 kg heavy is about:
a.
4,0
m2
b.
3,5
m2
c.
2,6
m2
d.
1,7
m2
e.
0,9
m2
2.
Developmental
transition of cells from the basal layer to the horny layer in normal skin
depends on their:
a. proliferation ability
b. differentiation
c. survival
d.
none of the
options is correct
e. regeneration
3.
Desmosomes
are:
a. fibres which determine
the strength of collagen fibers
b. fibres that make a
body of smooth muscle
c.
major part
of elastic fibres representing their elasticity
d. bordered thickenings of cell membrane,
tonofilaments are clamped inside the keratinocytes
e.
connections
between cells of stratum basale and basement membrane
4.
In which
part of the skin is produced melanin?
a. in keratinocytes of stratum basale
b. in melanofores of derma
c. in melanocytes
d. in keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
e. in histiocytes
5.
Which
order does correspond to the actual arrangement of layers in the epidermis?
a. str. basale – str. spinosum – str. lucidum –
str. granulosum – str. corneum
b. str. basale – str. spinosum – str. granulosum –
str. lucidum – str. corneum
c. str. basale – str. granulosum – str. spinosum –
str. lucidum – str. corneum
d. str. basale – str. lucidum – str. granulosum –
str. spinosum – str. corneum
e. str. basale – str. lucidum – str. spinosum –
str. granulosum – str. corneum
6.
How many
rows of cells with nuclei are normally in the stratum corneum?
a. 10 – 12
b. 7 – 9
c. 4 – 6
d. 1 – 3
e. 0
7.
In which
layer of the epidermis are located keratohyalin grains?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
8.
Dermis
contains:
a. elastic fibers
b. collagen fibres
c. argyrofill fibres
d. grape-shaped fet cells
e. amorphous ground substance
9.
Physiological
daily hair growth is approximately:
a. 0,1 mm
b. 0,35 mm
c. 1,0 mm
d. none of the options are correct
e. 0,01 mm
10.
What do
the terms anagen, telogen and katagen mean?
a. they characterize the position of hair papilla
in the epidermis
b. stages of hair cycle
c. they characterize normal, increased and
decreased hair density in different seasons
d. types of hair located only in the scalp
e. types of hair located only on the body
11.
Choose the
correct order of growing stages of the hair:
a. telogen – catagen – anagen
b. anagen – catagen – telogen
c. catagen – telogen – anagen
d. catagen – anagen – telogen
e. anagen – telogen – catagen
12.
Anagen
stage is:
a. abnormal stage
b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
c. transition stage
d. the shortest of all stages
e. stage, in which hair normally falls
13.
Catagen
stage is:
a. abnormal stage
b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
c. transition stage
d. the shortest of all stages
e. stage, in which hair normally falls
14.
Telogen
stage is:
a. abnormal stage
b. stage, where is majority of hair of the scalp
c. transition stage
d. the shortest of all stages
e. stage, in which hair normally falls
15.
The normal
trichogram ratio of anagen, telogen and catagen hair is:
a. 45 : 1 : 54
b. 14 : 6 : 80
c. 70 : 4 : 26
d. 85 : 1 : 14
e. 18 : 2 : 80
16.
How much
hairs do fall out daily in the normal hair cycle?
a. 20 – 30
b. 40 – 50
c. 60 – 70
d. 70 – 100
e. more than 150
17.
What is
lunula?
a. the area less supplied by arteries
b. the area with poorly thickened nail plate
c. the area with thickened nail plate
d. the visible part of the matrix
e. the accumulation of air bubbles between the
poorly keratinised cells of the nail plate
18.
Sebaceous
glands are normally found on:
a. soles
b. backs of the hands
c. face
d. abdomen
e. palms
19.
Which
areas of the skin are abundantly supplied with sebaceous glands?
a. face
b. palms
c. sternum area
d. hair on the scalp
e. feet
20.
Apocrine
sweat glands are on:
a. neck
b. armpits
c. forehead
d. palms
e. perigenital area
21.
Which of
the following statements is correct for eccrine sweat glands?
a. they are spread over the whole body surface
b. they have no role in thermal regulation
c. they can cause acne vulgaris in pathological
conditions
d. they are no active during childhood
e. none of the options are correct
22.
What does
drain into the hair follicle?
a. eccrine sweat gland
b. apocrine sweat gland
c. sebaceous gland
d. lymphatic vessels of the skin
e. none of the statements are correct
23.
Sebaceous
glands are:
a. in the epidermis
b. in the dermis
c. in the hypodermis
d. in stratum corneum
e. in all layers of the skin
24.
What can
protect the skin against bacterial infection?
a. secretion of the apocrine glands
b. secretion of the eccrine glands
c. lipids of sebaceous glands
d. separating of the cells in stratum
disjunctum
e. increasing of skin melanin
25.
Skin color
depends on:
a. the skin pigment (melanin)
b. the thickness of epidermis
c. the amount of beta- carotene
d. sweating of the skin
e. vascularisation
26.
pH of the
healthy skin is:
a. 1,5
b. 3,5
c. 5,5
d. 7,5
e. 9,5
27.
What does
participate in the thermoregulation?
a. keratinocytes of stratum corneum
b. sweat glands
c. melanocytes
d. sebaceous glands
e. hypodermis
28.
Choose
important skin functions:
a. thermoregulation
b. mechanical barrier
c. storage of vitamins
d. sensory organ
e. significant depot of water and energy
29.
What is
hyperkeratosis?
a. thickening of stratum basale
b. overgrowth of cells with keratohyaline grains
c. thickening of stratum corneum
d. thickening of the whole epidermis
e. relative thickening of the epidermis over the
thin corium
30.
What is
parakeratosis?
a. hyperkeratosis with absence of the stratum
granulosum
b. abnormal and incomplete keratinisation,
corneocytes in cornified layer contain nuclear material, the stratum granulosum
is largely absent
c. disorder of keratinisation where coherence of
cells of horny layer is disturbed
d. thickening of stratum spinosum
e. none of the statements is correct
31.
What is
spongiosis?
a. intercellular oedema developing after widening
of intercellular spaces in the stratum spinosum
b. overgrowth of inflammatory infiltrate in
intercellular spaces in the stratum spinosum
c. thickening of the stratum corneum
d. thickening of the stratum spinosum
e. linear gaps among cells in the stratum spinosum
32.
What is
acanthosis?
a. the papillary body is elongated and widened
b. thickening of the spinous cell layer of the
epidermis
c. widening of the intercellular spaces due to
oedema in the stratum spinosum
d. loss of desmosomal contacts in in the stratum
spinosum
e. thickening of the whole epidermis
33.
What is dyskeratosis?
a. the premature imperfect keratinisation of
individual keratinocytes between still nonkeratinized epidermal cell structure
b. linear gaps among cells in the stratum spinosum
c. delayed process of keratinisation in the
epidermis
d. uniform thickening of all layers of epidermis
e. none of the statements is correct
34.
What is
macula?
a. circumscribed oedema in the skin
b. circumscribed elevation of the skin
c. circumscribed alteration in the color of the
skin
d. circumscribed overgrowth of the number of hair
on the small surface
e. dilatation of the hair follicle
35.
Which
instrument is used to differ haematoma from erythema in the skin?
a. needle
b. lancet
c. glass spatula
d. wooden spatula
e. nothing mentioned
36.
What is
purpura?
a. permanently dilated tiny vessels in the skin
b. bleeding into the skin
c. pigmentation on basis of overgrowth of melanin
d. pigmentation from foreign substances
e. circumscribed stenosis of vessels in the skin
37.
What is
papula?
a. blister
b. depression in the skin
c. circumscribed oedema in the dermis
d. circumscribed palpable elevation of the skin
e. none of statements is correct
38.
Papula
develops by:
a. tiny bleeding
b. pigment deposition
c. overgrowing or infiltration of cell elements
d. necrosis
e. blood perfusion
39.
Mark
correct statements relating to urtica:
a. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
b. flat cellular circumscribed infiltrate
c. skin elevation that develops quickly and lasts
for less than 24 hours
d. it develops in any layer of the skin
e. in subcutaneous tisssues angioedema can develop
40.
What is
vesicle?
a. skin cavity lined with epithelium – endothelium
or membraneous lining, containing fluid, pus or keratin
b. circumscribed spreading of the blood vessel
c. circumscribed fluid – filled lesions
d. circumscribed oedema in the dermis
e. spreading of lymphatic vessels
41.
What is
pustula?
a. cavity in epidermis filled with haemorrhagic
fluid
b. vesicle with clear content
c. vesicle with disturbed covering
d. cyst filled with pus
e. blister filled with pus
42.
Macula is:
a. circumscribed coloring of various shape and
size in the level of the skin
b. circumscribed cellular infiltrate or overgrowth
of tissue of the skin up to 1 cm
c. extensive inflammatory infiltrate that afflicts
deeper parts of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
d. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
e. blister filled with pus
43.
Papula is:
a. circumscribed coloring of various shape and
size in the level of the skin
b. circumscribed cellular infiltrate or overgrowth
of tissue of the skin up to 1 cm
c. extensive inflammatory infiltrate that afflicts
deeper parts of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
d. circumscribed oedema of the dermis
e. blister filled with pus
44.
Red macula
is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the
region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate
or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by
locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of
capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia
in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
45.
Dermal
papula is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the
region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate
or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by
locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of
capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia
in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
46.
Urtica is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the
region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate
or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by
locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of
capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia
in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
47.
Brown
macula is:
a. circumscribed overgrowth of melanin in the
region of basal cells
b. thickening of the dermis on basis of infiltrate
or proliferation of cells, oedema and hyperaemia
c. solid circumscribed elevation conditioned by
locally limited oedema. White to pink color of lesion corresponds to filling of
capillaries
d. local redness conditioned by limited hyperaemia
in pars papillaris and pars reticularis
e. none of mentioned
48.
White
macula is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis,
spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue leading or embedded into
hypodermis caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of
dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by
hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in
the dermis
49.
Mixed
papula is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis,
spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue leading or embedded into
hypodermis caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of
dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by
hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in
the dermis
50.
Epidermal
papula is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis,
spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue leading or embedded into
hypodermis caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of
dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by
hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in
the dermis
51.
Tuber is:
a. thickening of epidermis by acanthosis,
spongiosis (= intercellular oedema )
b. focal depigmentation of the skin
c. large nodal tissue into hypodermis leading or
embedded caused by inflammation or proliferation
d. circumscribed infiltrate on the borderline of
dermis and hypodermis
e. thickening of epidermis and dermis by
hypertrophy or hyperplasia of all layers of epidermis, oedema and hyperaemia in
the dermis
52.
Scale
develops:
a. as a consequence of tiny bleeding
b. as a consequence of disturbing intercellular
bridges in the stratum spinosum
c. as a consequence of disturbing coherence of
cells in diseased process
d. as a consequence of pyogenic process in
epidermis
e. as a consequence of excessive formation of
pigment caused by ultraviolet rays
53.
Crust
develops:
a. from necrosis
b. from dried epidermis
c. from cellular elements over pathological lesion
d. from dried excretion over some pathological
processes
e. from sediments of external origin
54.
What is
erosion?
a. superficial loss of epidermis
b. loss of epidermis and upper region of papillary
part of dermis
c. circumscribed loss of stratum disjunctum
d. saturation of epidermis by blood discharge
e. microfocal bleeding into mucous membranes
55.
What is
excoriation?
a. circumscribed loss of upper parts of epidermis
leading up to stratum spinosum
b. loss of epidermis and upper region of papillary
part of dermis
c. circumscribed loss of stratum corneum
d. saturation of epidermis by blood discharge
e. microfocal bleeding into mucous membranes
56.
Which
lesion does protrude above the skin?
a. papula
b. erosion
c. urtica
d. excoriation
e. macula
57.
Which
lesion does protrude above the skin?
a. nodule
b. vesicle
c. fissure
d. pustule
e. ulcer
58.
Which
lesion does belong to secondary lesions?
a. scale
b. erosion
c. scar
d. vesicle
e. ulcer
59.
Erosion
is:
a. loss of substance of the skin leading up to the
dermis
b. loss of substance of the epidermis leading up
to the stratum spinosum
c. loss of substance of the epidermis and upper
part of the dermis
d. lesion developing after disturbing of the cover
of vesicles
e. split without loss of skin substance
60.
Fissure
is:
a. loss of substance of the skin leading up the
dermis
b. loss of substance of the epidermis leading up
to the stratum spinosum
c. loss of substance of the epidermis and upper
part of the dermis
d. lesion developing after disturbing the cover of
vesicles
e. split without loss of skin substance
61.
Ulcer is:
a. loss of substance of the skin leading up to the
dermis
b. loss of substance of the epidermis leading up
to the stratum spinosum
c. loss of substance of the epidermis and upper
part of the dermis
d. lesion developing after disturbing the cover of
vesicles
e. split without loss of skin substance
62.
Scar:
a. does not contain sweat and sebaceous glands
b. the cause is loss of skin tissue extending to
dermis
c. skin is flat, smooth and glossy
d. hypertrophic forms can also develop
e. all skin layers are thinner
63.
Atrophy:
a. the cause is loss of skin tissue extending to
dermis
b. skin is flat, smooth and glossy
c. hypertrophic forms can also develop
d. all skin layers are thinner
e. larger skin vessels can be seen through affected
skin
64.
Exanthema
is:
a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of
the skin
b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous
membrane
c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
d. the basic morphologic unit of pathologic
process on the skin
e. the pathological change of nail plates
65.
Erythema
is:
a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of
the skin
b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous
membrane
c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
d. the basic morphologic unit of pathologic
process on skin
e. the pathological change of nail plates
66.
Enanthema
is:
a. the skin lesion disseminated on the surface of
the skin
b. the pathological lesion occurring on mucous
membrane
c. the lesion induced by active hyperaemia
d. the basic morphologic unit of pathologic
process on the skin
e. the pathological change of nail plates
67.
Herpes
zoster is characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. white macula
d. epidermal papula
e. cyst
68.
Psoriasis
vulgaris is characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. ulcer
d. papula
e. cyst
69.
Vitilgo is
characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. white macula
d. epidermal papula
e. cyst
70.
Verrucae
plane are characterized by:
a. intraepidermal vesicles
b. scales
c. white macula
d. epidermal papula
e. cyst
71.
Which of
these diseases is commonly asymmetrically localized?
a. herpes zoster
b. macular and papular exanthema in secondary
syphilis
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. ulcus durum
e. atopic dermatitis
72.
What can
be caused by repeated friction or pressure on skin?
a. blisters formation
b. hyperkeratosis
c. hyperpigmentation
d. telangiectasias
e. milia
73.
The
first-degree burn of skin is manifested by:
a. oedema
b. blister
c. erythema
d. necrosis
e. pain
74.
The
second-degree burn of skin is manifested by:
a. oedema
b. blister
c. erythema
d. necrosis
e. pain
75.
The
third-degree burn is manifested by:
a. oedema
b. blister
c. erythema
d. necrosis
e. pain
76.
What does
remain on the skin after healing of the first-degree burn?
a. it is healed completely
b. temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
c. atrophic scars
d. hypertrophic scars
e. contractures
77.
What does
remain on the skin after healing of the second-degree burn?
a. keloid-like scars
b. temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
c. atrophic scars
d. hypertrophic scars
e. contractures
78.
What does
remain on the skin after healing of the third-degree burn?
a. keloid-like scars
b. temporary hyper- and hypopigmentations
c. atrophic scars
d. hypertrophic scars
e. contractures
79.
Which
complications of burns can occured?
a. hypovolemic shock
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation
c. toxic shock syndrome
d. sepsis
e. secondary skin infections
80. Typical for perniones is:
a. they usually develops on basis of functional
disorders of peripheral circulation
b. in cold they present blue-red flat inflammatory
nodules
c. after the rewarming they are bright red and
very painful
d. vesicles and ulcers can form
e. lesions never form ulcers
81. Typical for pernio is:
a. they occur in low temperature over 0şC
b. they are demarcated flat, inflammatory nodules
c. after the rewarming the pain recedes
d. lesions can form ulcers
e. blisters can form
82. Which part of sun radiation does induce early pigmentation on skin?
a. infrared radiation
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm)
e. combination of UV-B + UV-C-rays
83. Which part of sun radiation does induce erythema on skin?
a. infrared radiation
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm)
e. combination of UV-B + UV-C-rays
84. What is the meaning of the term phototoxic dermatitis?
a. reaction of skin when because of sun radiation
arise metabolites, that cause abnormal inflammatory reaction
b. reaction of skin after longterm exposition to
intense sun radiation
c. reaction of skin caused by direct interaction
of radiation and photosensitising substance producing a type of sunburn
reaction
d. reaction of skin after too intense exposition
to infrared radiation
e. reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a
consequence of genetic higher sensibility
85. What is the meaning of the term photoallergic dermatitis ?
a. reaction of skin caused by photoallergens and
UVA radiation in sensitised individuals
b. reaction of skin after longterm exposition of
skin to intense sun radiation
c. reaction of skin caused by direct interaction
of radiation and photosensitising substance producing a type of sunburn
reaction
d. reaction of skin after too intense exposition
to infrared radiation
e. reaction of skin to UV-radiation as a
consequence of genetic higher sensibility
86. Diseases developing by exposure or participation of sun radiation are:
a. acute contact dermatitis
b. dermatitis bullosa striata pratensis
(Oppenheim)
c. herpes zoster
d. lichen planus
e. hydroa vacciniforme
87. Dermatitis bullosa striata pratensis (Oppenheim) is a reaction:
a. phototraumatic
b. phototoxic
c. photoallergic
d. none of mentioned
e. phototraumatic and phototoxic
88. Dermatitis solaris is a reaction:
a. phototraumatic
b. phototoxic
c. photoallergic
d. none of mentioned
e. phototraumatic and phototoxic
89. Solar urticaria is a reaction:
a. pototraumatic
b. phototoxic
c. photoallergic
d. none of mentioned
e. phototraumatic and phototoxic
90. Xeroderma pigmentosum is:
a. congenital sensitivity to infrared radiation
b. congenital sensitivity to sun with abnormal
metabolism of porfyrins
c. congenital sensitivity to sun and caused by
defects of several enzymes
d. disorder of pigmentation connected with inherited
skin dystrophy
e. congenital disorder of abnormal metabolism of
porfyrins
91. What lesion can develop on the skin of people suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
a. hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation
b. dermatitis solaris
c. skin atrophy
d. hypertrophic scars
e. skin tumors
92. What dosage of ionising radiation can induce acute radiodermatitis?
a. 1-2 Gy
b. 3-4 Gy
c. 5-6 Gy
d. 7-8 Gy
e. 9-10 Gy
93. What is characteristic for chronic radiodermatitis?
a. it occurs after latent period of several years
b. it mostly manifests with sclerosis and atrophy
in the place of radiation
c. it occurs after latent period of 1-2 months
d. in affected area telangiectases commonly occur
e. after longer persistence in atrophic center an
ulcer can develop
94. Which disease is supposed to be of viral aetiology?
a. herpes zoster
b. erythema migrans
c. herpes simplex
d. toxic epidermal necrolysis
e. erythema multiforme
95. Which disease is accompanied by systemic symptoms?
a. erythema annulare centrifugum
b. fixed drug eruption
c. erythema migrans
d. erythema multiforme
e. granuloma annulare
96. Assign the pathomechanisms of allergic drug eruptions:
a. anaphylaxis
b. autoimmune reaction
c. acute toxic reaction
d. Arthus reaction
e. cytotoxic reaction
97. Idiosyncratic reaction is:
a. congenital sensitivity to a drug on
non-immunological basis
b. congenital sensitivity to a drug on
immunological basis
c. acquired sensitivity to a drug on
non-immunological basis
d. acquired sensitivity to a drug on immunological
basis
e. overdosage of drugs
98. Lichenoid drug eruption is induced by:
a. sulphonamides
b. broad- spectrum antibiotics
c. preparations of gold
d. beta blockers
e. antipyretics
99. Acne vulgaris can be provoked or exacerbated by these drugs:
a. corticosteroids
b. mercury, bismuth
c. arsenic, gold
d. halogens S*
e. antimalarials
100. Typical affected areas of erythema multiforme are:
a. pubic region
b. flexor surfaces of limbs
c. skin of the face
d. trunk
e. extensor surfaces of limbs
101. Which of following factors can be present in erythema nodosum?
a. metabolic disorders
b. sarcoidosis
c. necrobiotic changes
d. streptococcal infections
e. infection of Yersinia enterocolica
102. Erythema nodosum is characterised by:
a. location on calves
b. more common in females
c. location on extensor surfaces of
shins
d. eruptions all over the body
e. lesions does not ulcerate
103. Löfgren syndrome is combination of:
a. erythema nodosum and bilateral
hilar lymphadenopathy in sarcoidosis
b. erythema nodosum and paresis n.
facialis
c. erythema nodosum and uveitis
d. erythema nodosum and ostitis
multiplex cystoides
e. erythema nodosum and
hepatosplenomegaly
104. Pityriasis rosea is most commonly localized on:
a. the face and neck
b. the thighs and shins
c. the palms and soles
d. the trunk and proximal part of limbs
e. the distal part of limbs
105. Pityriasis rosea begins with:
a. eruption of multiple lesions
b. intensive itching of affected skin
c. primary solitary lesion of round or
oval shape
d. color of the lesion on periphery is
light red, in the central part yellowish
e. peripheral part of the lesion is
formed by a collarette scales
106. What is pityriasis rosea?
a. a form of seborrhoeic dermatitis
b. a disease from particular allergic
reaction of skin
c. a disease induced by bacterial
saprophytes of the skin
d. a disease induced by fungal
saprophytes of the skin
e. a disease of unknown origin
107. What is characteristic for pityriasis rosea?
a. location on the trunk
b. tiny collarette of scale that
typically points to the centre
c. relapses are common
d. the neck and face are usually
affected
e. intense itching
108. What is an aetiopathogenetic basis of psoriasis?
a. disorders of immune mechanisms
b. disorders of circulation
c. inheritance
d. parasitic diseases
e. allergy
109. Mark the correct statements about psoriasis:
a. typical are dry and silver-white
scales
b. scalp is commonly affected
c. psoriatic lesion weeps
d. nail changes are common
e. favourite affected areas are elbows
and knees
110. What is a typical manifestation of psoriasis?
a. infiltrated lesions
b. scales
c. vesicles
d. cysts
e. ulcers
111.
Primary skin lesion in psoriasis is:
a. flat papula covered with silvery
scales
b. vesicle
c. cyst
d. urtica
e. ulcer
112. What is characteristic for psoriatic scale?
a. silver-white color, dryness
b. removing the scale reveals a candle
sign
c. it completely covers the whole
lesion
d. removing the scale reveals erosion
e. it occurs also on the lesion of leucoderma
psoriaticum
113.
Which signs are significant in psoriasis vulgaris?
a. punctuate bleeding
b. Auspitz sign
c. candle sign
d. carpet tack sign
e. sign of the last little piece of
skin
114. Auspitz sign occurs in:
a. verrucae plane
b. eczema
c. lichen planus
d. psoriasis vulgaris
e. molluscum contagiosum
115.
Which signs are positive in psoriasis vulgaris?
a. Köbner phenomenon
b. Nikolsky I sign
c. Auspitz sign
d. Nikolsky II sign
e. carpet tack sign
116. In which diseases does Köbner phenomenon occur?
a. furunculosis
b. lichen planus
c. verrucae plane
d. neurodermatitis
e. pityriasis rosea
117. What is candle sign?
a. scale on the surface of lesion
organized to the shape of a drop from stearin candle
b. matte coloring of psoriatic scales
looking like stearin candle
c. spontaneous crumbling of a dry scale
resembling scrapings from stearin candle
d. scales fall off in form of tiny
flakes that resemble scrapings from a candle using methodical scratching with
scalpel
e. punctuate bleeding from enlarged
capillaris when the last layer of scale is removed
118. What is Auspitz sign?
a. synonymum for punctuate bleeding
b.
area
bleeding that occurs after the friction of psoriatic plaques between the
fingers
c. scales fall off in form of tiny
flakes that resemble scrapings from a candle using methodical scratching with
scalpel
d. punctuate bleeding from enlarged capillaries when
the last layer of scale is removed by scratching with the scalpel
e. synonym for collarette of scales
119. What is Köbner phenomenon in psoriasis?
a. developing of psoriatic lesions caused by
acute febrile infection
b. generalization of psoriasis after local irritation of psoriatic lesions
c. provoking of psoriatic lesions in areas of skin irritation
d. conversion of continuous psoriatic lesion to annular lesion
e. arrangement of psoriatic lesions in wavy lines
120. What are the predilection sites of
psoriasis?
a. face
b. large joint flexors
c. sacral area
d. elbows
e. knees
121. When can develop eruption of acute
follicular or guttate psoriasis?
a. after wearing of synthetic underwear
b. after consumption of citrus fruits
c. after cold exposure
d. after the previous infectious diseases
e. as a result of impetigo
122. Which forms of psoriais do you know?
a. follicular psoriasis
b. nummular psoriasis
c. geografphic psoriasis
d. vesicular psoriasis
e. psoriasis inversus
123. Which nail changes do occur in psoriasis?
a. onychodystrophy
b. onycholysis
c. onychomadesis
d. bleeding under the nails
e. subungual hyperkeratosis
124. Which of these diseases are in a grup
of erythemato – papulo – squamous diseases?
a. urticaria
b. contagious impetigo
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. pemphigus vulgaris
e. pityriasis rosea
125. Psoriasis is characterized by:
a. psoriasis is not a contagious disease
b. heredity does not affect the incidence of psoriasis
c. well defined erythemato – papulo –squamous flat papula is a primary lesion
d. psoriasis can occur at any age, regardless of gender
e. the diagnosis of psoriasis can be done additionally by occurence of leukoderma
126. Psoriatic arthritis is characterized by:
a. the most common, it is an asymmetric
peripheral oligoarthropathy
b. small joints of hands are mainly affected
c. rheumatoid factor is usually positive
d. a significant association with HLA-B27
e. rheumatoid factor is usually negative
127. What is the difference between psoriaic
arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
a. joints are not usually affected
symmetrically
b. distal interphalangeal joints are affected
c. rheumatoid factor is positive
d. rheumatoid factor is negative
e. joints tend to be mostly affected symmetrically
128. What are Munro's microabscesses?
a. small bacterial abscesses in the epidermis
b. lesions of pustular psoriasis
c. sterile leukocyte infiltration between the layers of parakeratotic lamellae
d. accumulation of leukocytes in the dermis
e. accumulation of eosinophils in the epidermis
129. Which of these histological manifestations
does occur in psoriasis?
a. dyskeratosis
b. parakeratosis
c. hyperkeratosis
d. hypergranulosis
e. spongiosis
130.
Which of
these diseases can be psoriasis-like in some of their stage?
a. pemphigus vulgaris
b. psoriasis-like eczematid
c. secondary syphilis
d. sarcoidosis
e. pityriasis rosea
131.
Assign to
scalp psoriasis correct statements:
a.
hairs
usually fall out of pathological area
b. lesions are well defined
c.
scales
covering lesion form thick deposits
d.
symptoms
tend to be localized typically at the interface of scalp and non hairy skin
e. auricles may also be affected
132.
Assign to
seborrhoeic dermatitis correct statements:
a. scales covering lesion are dry, whitish colored
b. eyebrows and nasolabial folds may also be
affected
c. scales covering lesion are strongly oily, yellowish brown colored
d. skin under scales is minimally inflamed
e.
the
lipophilic yeast Malassezia sp. plays an important role in the
aetiopathogenesis
133.
Which
provocation factors can apply in the aetiopathogenesis of psoriasis?
a. sunlight
c. beta-blockers
d.
the
occurrence of focal infection
e. alcohol
134.
What are
the appropriate measures to prevent exacerbation of psoriasis?
b. skin care with soft, non-irritant topical
agents
c.
prevention
of stressful situations
d. wipe the skin after washing with terry towel to
improve circulation
e.
searching
for focal infections and removing them
135. Parapsoriasis en plaques is characterized by:
a. diameter of lesions is less than 5 cm in small
patch form
b. polygonal flat papula covered by lacy reticular
pattern of criss-crossed whitish lines
c. dark-red oval papula covered by thin micaceous
scale, whole scale easily separates
d. papula painful to pressure
e. course has 3 forms
136. Pityriasis lichenoides et varioliformis acuta
is:
a. chronic form of parapsoriasis en plaques
b. chronic form of pityriasis lichenoides
c. form of parapsoriasis occuring in atopic
patients
d. acute form of parapsoriasis en plaques
e. is disease with favourite affected areas on
trunk and flexor surfaces of limbs
137. Clinical features of parapsoriasis en plaques
are characterized by:
a. lesions are located on face and shins
b. fine scales occurs on smooth glossy surface of
lesions after scratching
c. diameter of lesions is less than 5 cm in small
patch form
d. well defined yellow-red lesions as having
atrophy appearance
e. lesions resemble
fingerprints in small patch form
138. Erythroderma is:
a. inflammation of the skin in skin folds
b. inflammation of the skin affecting at least half of the skin surface
c. disease of soles and palms accompanied by
redness and peeling
d. inflammation of the whole skin surface with
scaling
e. inflammation of the whole skin surface without
scaling
139. Clinical features of erythroderma are
characterized by:
a. feeling cold
b. acute erythroderma is usually developing on the
base of non inflamed skin
c. transverse ridges are on the nails
d. hair is not altered
e. systemic symptoms are not present
140. Secondary erythroderma can develop from:
a. psoriasis vulgaris
b. eczema
c. lichen planus
d. pityriasis rubra pilaris
e. eczematides
141. Which are the favourite affected areas of
lichen planus?
a. extensor surfaces of thighs
b. trunk
c. extensor surfaces of forearms
d. wrists
e. flexor surfaces of forearms
142.
What is
the initial primary lesion of lichen planus?
a. round convex skin colored papula
b. papula with the central vesicle
c. round flat pink papula
d. polygonal flat violaceous papula
e. hyperkeratotic deposits on tiny macules
143.
Wickham
striae are typical for:
a. psoriasis vulgaris
b. mucosal manifestations of lichen planus
c. lichen planus on the skin
d. discoid lupus erythematosus
e. parapsoriasis en plaques
144.
Which
clinical features are characteristic for lichen planus?
a. Köbner phenomenon
b. Auspitz sign
c. Wickham striae
d. carpet tack sign
e. collarette scales
145.
Mark
correct statements about lichen planus:
a. it is rare accompanying sign of lichen planus
of the skin
b. lacy reticular pattern of criss-crossed whitish
lines mainly on buccal mucosa is typical
c. lesions on mucous membranes itch intensively
d. lesions on skin itch intensively
e. glans penis may also be affected
146.
Which
variant of lichen planus does occur on shins?
a. follicular lichen planus
b. bullous lichen planus
c. annularis lichen planus
d. verrucous lichen planus
e. linear lichen planus
147.
Which
variant of lichen planus does occur on the male genitals?
a. follicular lichen planus
b. bullous lichen planus
c. annularis lichen planus
d. verrucous lichen planus
e. linear lichen planus
148.
The
principle of Wickham striae is:
a. linear depigmentation
b. reticular smooth hyperkeratosis
c. thickening of the granular layer
d. thinning of the granular layer
e. dyskeratosis
149.
Mark
correct statements about lichen planus:
a. flat papules slightly rough normal skin colored
b. papules are slightly hemispheric, circular
shaped
c. Wickham striae are missing
d. skin lesions intensively itch
e. papules are flat polygonal shaped
150.
Mark
correct statements about lichen simplex chronicus are:
a. favourite affected areas are neck, distal parts
of the limbs or genital area
b. mucous membranes are affected
c. Wickham striae are missing
d. some skin types are more prone to
lichenification
e. systemic symptoms are missing
151.
Mark true
statements about verrucae plane:
a. flat papules with yellowish-brown color
b. papules are hemispheris shape
c. Wickham striae are missing
d. Köbner phenomenon is present
e. papules are purple colored
152. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for
psoriasis:
a. infiltration with dry silvery scales
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. oily yellow scales
e. short duration
153. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for
seborrhoic dermatitis:
a. infiltration with dry silvery scales
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. oily yellow scales
e. short duration
154. Choose the typical diagnostic findings for
pityriasis rosea:
a. single primary lesion is of round or oval shape
localised on the trunk
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. silvery scales
e. short duration
155.
Choose the
typical diagnostic findings for lichen planus:
a. macula covered by dry scales
b. lesions are violet colored
c. intensive itching
d. silvery scales
e. Köbner phenomenon
156. What are differential diagnoses in lichen
planus on mucosa?
a. leukoplakia
b. candisosis
c. plaques opalines
d. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
e. herpetic gingivostomatitis
157. Prurigo simplex acuta is disease:
a. of adults
b. with infiltrated papules without exudation
c. characteristic lesion is urtica with exudation
d. with usually altered trunk and limbs
e. with lesions grouped mostly
around the waist
158. Prurigo simplex acuta can be related:
a. with internal malignant diseases
b. with insect bite
c. with dusty environment
d. with food allergens
e. with herpes simplex infection
159. Prurigo is defined as:
a. aetiologically unique clinical unit
b. form of skin reaction due to various
provocative causes
c. disease, which etiological factors are
exclusively external
d. disease, which etiological factors are external
and internal
e. as result of delayed type of allergic reaction
160. True statements about prurigo simplex acuta
are:
a. wheals with hemorrhagic dot are present
b. wheals with central microscopic vesicles
c. wheals with pustule in the center
d. lesions are located predominantly on the trunk
and limbs
e. lesions are located predominantly on the face
161. True statements for scabies are:
a. wheals with hemorrhagic dot are present
b. excoriated papules on the wrists are present
c. typical are wheals with vesicles
d. papules are usually on the penis
e. papules are predominantly on extensor parts of
the limbs
162. Pruritus cum materia is characterized by:
a. itching accompanies skin diseases
b. itching accompanies systemic diseases
c. itching accompanies psychiatric diseases
d. atopic dermatitis is a common cause
e. renal insufficiency may be cause
163. For pruritus sine materia is characteristic:
a. itching accompanies skin diseases
b. itching accompanies systemic diseases
c. itching accompanies psychiatric diseases
d. atopic dermatitis is a common cause
e. renal insufficiency may be a cause
164. Urticaria is understood as a disease:
a. definitely of allergic genesis
b. induced mostly by the action of mediators
c. polyaetiological with different pathogenesis
d. characterized by massive infiltration
e. caused by increased vascular permeability
165. Choose the true statements for urticaria:
a. lesions last short time, they are like rash
after contact with the nettle
b. wheals are intensely itchy
c. lesions are always excoriated
d. conjunctiva is usually affected
e. lesions never itch
166. Angioedema is:
a. result of an increase neural excitability
b. reaction of deep dermal vascular permeability
c. result of organic damage of blood vessels
d. reaction with similar pathomechanism as
urticaria
e.
none of
the options is correct
167. Histamin, acetylcholin, serotonin are:
a. drugs for allergic reaction
b. without relation to allergy
c. mediators mediating allergic response
d. allergens, against which antibodies arise
e. substances which can be released even without
immune mechanisms
168. Chronic urticaria is related to:
a. focal infection
b. physical causes
c. acute infection
d. intestinal parasites
e. additives of food
169. Physical urticaria:
a. occurs during a day
b. occurs only during a night
a. is verifiable by a particular physical test
b. accompanied by white dermographism
c. can be sometimes genetically conditioned
170. Small, whitish wheals on trunk with
erythematous area are found in:
a. serum sickness
b. cold urticaria
c. urticaria after physical stimuli
d. cholinergic urticaria
e. pressure urticaria
171. Cold urticaria:
a. is always of non-allergic origin
b. is always of allergic origin
c. can be both of allergic and non-allergic origin
d. can be genetically conditioned
e. is never genetically conditioned
172. Urticaria factitia is reaction:
a. spontaneously occurring on the skin
b. provoked by tangential pressure
c. occurring after provocation on distant places
d. developing only in site of provocation
e. permanent condition that cannot be affected
neither spontaneously nor with therapy
173. If an examination
reveals that erythematourticarial
manifestations occur slowly, they do not change their shape for a long time,
relapsing, painful and itchy vesicles develop on them; differential diagnostics
of the following must be considered:
a. herpes zoster
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. erythema multiforme
d. fixed drug eruption
e. prurigo
174. If an examination
reveals that erythematourticarial
manifestations occur suddenly, they are concentric target , some of them with
central dusky purpura, mostly on extensors, differential diagnostics of the
following must be considered:
a. herpes zoster
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. erythema multiforme
d. fixed drug eruption
e. prurigo
175. Which examination would you recommend in
examination of chronic urticaria:
a. searching for focal infection
b. HbsAg
c. examination of parasites in stool
d. examination of basic biochemical parameters
e. routine patch tests
176. What factors do play a role in pathogenesis of eczema?
a. pollutants from outer environment
b. virulence of pathogenic organisms
c. barrier function of the skin
d. genetic predisposition
e. immune condition of the organism
177. Irritant contact dermatitis:
a. develops by acting of irritating substance on
the skin
b. occurs only in the site of contact
c. overlaps the site of contact
d. recedes after elimination of irritating
substance
e. persists and relapses long time after
elimination of irritating substance
178. Cumulative irritant contact dermatitis:
a. occurs by immune mechanism
b. appears as a failure of natural resistance of
skin
c. occurs in housewives
d. occurs mostly on hands
e. has often a character of professional
dermatitis
179. Choose the aetiological agents if contact
eczema is localized on eyelids in women:
a. professional allergens
b. metals (chromium, nickel, cobalt)
c. furs
d. cosmetics
e. plastic materials
180. Choose the aetiological agents if contact
eczema is localized on back of hands:
a. professional allergens
b. metals (chromium, nickel, cobalt)
c. furs
d. latex
e. plastic materials
181. Choose the condition when does professional
eczema get better?
a. inpatient treatment
b. outpatient treatment without interruption of
work
c. outpatient treatment with interruption of work
d. only if a patient change workplace and place of
living
e. change of workplace
182. Negative patch tests to a particular test kit
of allergens mean that:
a. it is not allergic contact eczema
b. causative allergen is not in the diagnostic test kit
c. testing was affected by current administration of antihistamines
d. it is cumulative chronic dermatitis
e. testing was affected by current administration of analgesics
183. What local changes can be in acute allergic
contact dermatitis?
a. erythema
b. papulovesicles
c. crusts
d. oedema
e. erosions with weeping
184. Which changes can be found in subacute an
chronic allergic contact dermatitis in local finding?
a. lichenification
b. exfoliation
c. oedema
d. fissures or rhagas
e. hyperkeratosis
185. Sensibility in allergic contact dermatitis can
develop:
a. only monovalent
b. only polyvalent
c. monovalent and also polyvalent
d. only to substance of the same chemical
structure
e. to substance of the same and similar chemical
structure
186. The most effective preventive precaution of
recurrent allergic contact dermatitis is:
a. using of protective clothes, gloves
b. using of protective creams
c. elimination of revealed inducing allergen
d. to protect skin from drying
e. using of disinfectant soaps
187. What does play a role in the pathogenesis of
nummular dermatitis?
a. sensitisation of organism to allergen of
microbial bodies
b. virulence of microbes inducing eczema
c. microbial products
d. lowered humoral immune response against microbes
e. probably cell mediated hypersensitivity of type
IV reaction
188. What is considered in aetiology of nummular
dermatitis?
a. genetic predisposition
b. hypersensitivity to staphylococcal antigens
c. chronic focal infections
d. sensitisation to allergens of working place
e. viral and fungal infection
189. Nummular dermatitis is usually localized on:
a. face
b. lower limbs
c. upper limbs
d. mucous membranes
e. palms and soles
190. Mark correct statements about atopic
dermatitis:
a. genetic predisposition is applied in
aetiopathogenesis
b. immune dysregulation is applied in
aetiopathogenesis
c. important role in onset is played by defective
epidermal barrier function
d. excessive production of IgG is present
e. the disease is not affected by environmental
factors
191. Atopic dermatitis is characterized by this
findings:
a. pale and dry skin
b. typical changes of clinical features depending
on age
c. hair growing deep on temples and large and
typical dense eyebrow
d. it can be connected with allergic rhinitis
e. minimal itching
192. Atopic dermatitis in infantile age is
characterized by this findings:
a. onset in first months of life
b. symptoms are considerably itching
c. first symptoms are typically localized on the
face
d. basic symptoms are papules and vesicles
e. secondary bacterial infections are not found
193. Seborrhoeic dermatitis in small children is
characterized by this symptoms:
a. onset usually in the first months of life
b. onset usually after the first year of life
c. the first symptoms are on the scalp, axilla,
diaper area
d. the first symptoms are on the limbs
e. basic symptom is slight erythema with oily
scales of yellowish color
194. Choose preventive precautions for atopic
dermatitis:
a. dietary precautions with eliminating known
allergens
b. use of bedding with feathers
c. using water and vacuum cleaner to keep the
house clean
d. isolation of an ill person
e. prevent contact of skin with wool and fur
195. Choose appropriate therapy of atopic
dermatitis:
a. antihistamines
b. topical corticosteroids
c. phototherapy
d. retinoids
e. climate treatment
196. Secondary lichenification occurs on basis of:
a. disorganization of vesicles
b. urticaria
c. contact dermatitis
d. atopic dermatitis
e. seborrhoeic dermatitis
197. In pathogenesis of seborrhoeic diseases
the primary role is played by:
a. lipofilic yeast Malassezia sp.
b. functional disorders of sebaceous glands
c. disorder of secretion of sweat glands
d. hypovitaminosis of vitamin D with hypocalcemia
e. sensibilisation to allergens of external
environment
198. Seborrhoeic dermatitis of adults and older
children is localized:
a. in nasolabial folds
b. in borderline of hairy part of head and
forehead
c. on wrists
d. in presternal area
e. on palms and soles
199. Lesions of seborrhoeic dermatitis:
a. are minimally infiltrated erythemato – squamous
lesions covered by oily yellowish scales
b. often show a butterfly shape on nose and cheeks
c. are covered on surface by thick silvery, glossy
scales, that are easily removable
d. are slightly itching
e. weeping and crust forming are present only
exceptionally
200. Choose appropriate therapy of seborrhoeic
dermatitis:
a. substances of sulphur
b. salicylates
c. vitamin D
d. mild topical corticosteroids
e. antifungals
201.
Which skin
manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus vulgaris?
a. flaccid blisters on normal skin
b. slight pressure on the roof of intact blister
causes its distribution to peripheral
c. blisters never occur on the mouth and vagina
mucosa
d. blister roof is relatively thin and ruptures
easily
e. small blisters often form on inflamed skin
202.
Which
histological and morphological manifestation does occur in pemphigus vulgaris?
a. Tzank's cells
b. subepidermal blisters
c. intraepidermal blisters
d. acantholysis
e. Munro's microabscesses
203.
Mark the
correct statements about pemphigus vulgaris:
a. erosions on the mucous membranes are extremely
painful
b. thin blister roof and their dissemination into
the periphery leads to extensive erosion
c. blister eruption is revealed in attacks
d. the presence of IgA antibodies against gliadin
is demonstrated in the serum of patients
e. pemphigus has the highest lethality in all
blistering dermatoses
204.
Choose the
appropriate treatment of pemphigus vulgaris:
a. sulfonamides
b. corticosteroids
c. antihistamines
d. antimalarials
e. immunosuppressants
205.
Favourite
affected area of pemphigus vegetans is:
a. palms and soles
b. trunk and waist
c. intertriginous areas
d. face
e. gluteal area
206.
Which skin
manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus vegetans?
a. on the contact surfaces papillomatous
vegetative lesions are often secondarily infected
b. the tiny vesicles are presented on the
urticarial and inflammatory lesions
c. vegetation can be very painful and unpleasant
smelling
d. they have a strong tendency to transition into
erythroderma
e. the warm and humid microenvironment helps to
their development
207.
Which skin
manifestations are characteristic for pemphigus foliaceus?
a. the prognosis is the most serious of all forms
of pemphigus
b. the primary lesion is a small flaccid blister
with a very thin roof
c. Nikolsky sign I is negative
d. the disease can spread to the whole skin surface
and secondary erythroderma creates
e. burning and pain sensation are present
208.
Pemphigus
foliaceus is characterized by:
a. itching
b. nail loss
c. involvement of mucous membranes
d. the first symptoms are usually occured in
seborrheic areas
e. better prognosis than pemfigus vulgaris
209.
Which are
the characteristic manifestations of pemphigus chronicus benignus familiaris –
morbus Hailey-Hailey?
a. flaccid vesicles and bullae form on the
inflammed base
b. erosions are usually covered by scales and
crusts
c. lesions never confluent
d. Nikolsky sign I is not positive in affected
area
e. striking itching is present
210.
What is
the usual localization of pemphigus chronicus benignus familiar?
a. the chest
b. the face
c. the sides of the neck
d. the intertriginous areas
e. the abdomen
211.
What is
favourite affected area of eruptions in dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. face
b. mucous membranes
c. blade area
d. gluteal and sacral area
e. elbows and knees
212.
What are
the typical manifestations of dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. burning sensation or severe itching
b. eruption of papules, wheals and tiny vesicles
c. eruption of bullae on the mucous membranes
d. fever
e. the mucous membranes are not affected
213.
What are
the characteristic symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. polymorphic cutaneous changes
b. burning and itching sensation
c. frequent presence of lesions on the mucous
membranes
d. vesicles tend to herpetiform grouping
e. systemic symptoms are not marked
214.
What type
of hypersensitivity is manifested in dermatitis herpetiformis?
a. to pollen allergens
b. to dust
c. to gluten
d. to iodine
e. to nickel
215.
Dermatitis
herpetiformis is characterized by:
a. negative Nikolsky sign I
b. positive allergy to iodine
c. positive Tzanck smear
d. therapeutic effect of the sulfone
e. itching and burning sensation
216.
Choose the
appropriate therapy for dermatitis herpetiformis:
a. retinoids
b. diet restriction of purines
c. sulfones
d. corticosteroids
e. gluten-free diet
217.
What are
the clinical manifestations of bullous pemphigoid?
a. grouped bullous and pustulous lesions on the
inflamed base
b. flaccid vesicles and bullae on the normal skin
c. vegetation can create in places of erosions
d. eruption of tense bullae on erythematous base
e. Nikolsky sign I can be positive
218.
What are
the histological findings in bullous pemphigoid?
a. Tzanck smear is positive
b. bullae are subepidermal
c. inflammatory infiltrate with eosinophils is
under the bullae in dermis
d. acantholysis
e. Munro's microabscesses
219.
Favourite
affected areas of bullous pemphigoid are:
a. mucous membranes
b. lateral parts of the neck
c. armpits
d. flexor surface of forearms and inner thighs
e. face
220.
Which age
is typical for development of bullous pemphigoid?
a. in neonatal
b. in childhood
c. in adolescence
d. 30-40 year
e. Over 60 years
221.
Typical
histological findings of pemphigus vulgaris are:
a. intraepidermal blistering
b. subepidermal blistering
c. acantholysis
d. Munro's microabscesses
e. dyskeratosis
222.
Typical
histological findings of bullous pemphigoid are:
a. intraepidermal blistering
b. subepidermal blistering
c. acantholysis
d. Munro's microabscesses
e. dyskeratosis
223.
Typical
histological findings of dermatitis herpetiformis are:
a. intraepidermal blistering
b. subepidermal blistering
c. acantholysis
d. acanthosis
e. dyskeratosis
224.
Pemphigus
vulgaris is characterized by:
a. favourite affected areas: blade, gluteal and
sacral area
b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of the
neck, armpits, flexor part of arm, inner thigh
c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin
d. frequent changes of mucous membranes
e. positive iodine test
225.
Dermatitis
herpetiformis is characterized by:
a. favourite affected areas: blade, gluteal and
sacral area
b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of the
neck, armpits, flexor part of arm, inner thigh
c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin
d. frequent changes of mucous membranes
e. iodine test is positive
226.
Bullous
pemphigoid is characterized by:
a. favourite affected areas: blade, gluteal and
sacral area
b. favourite affected areas: lateral part of the
neck, axillas, flexor part of arm, inner thigh
c. flaccid bullae usually on normal skin
d. frequent changes of mucous membranes
e. iodine test is positive
227.
Which
disease are characterized by positive Nikolsky sign I?
a. pemphigus vulgaris
b. pemphigus foliaceus
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. herpes simplex
e. lichen planus
228. Mark correct statements about pemphigus vulgaris:
a. Nikolsky sign I is positive
b. blisters filled with haemorrhagic fluid are
always present
c. flaccid blisters filled with clear and serous
fluid are present
d. eruptions occur in different time intervals
e. also mucous membranes can be affected
229. Systemic corticosteroids as first-line drugs are used in treatment of:
a. erysipelas
b. pemphigus vulgaris
c. erythema migrans
d. dermatitis herpetiformis
e. porphyria cutanea tarda
230.
Generalised pustular psoriasis (von Zumbusch type) is characterized by:
a. always occurs on the basis of psoriasis
vulgaris
b. formation of sterile pustules
c. pustules may coalesce
d. the most affected sites are extensors and
perianal area
e. is the most severe form of pustular psoriasis
231. Palmoplantar pustular psoriasis:
a. is mostly disease of children
b. is mostly disease of adult
c. disability is usually asymmetric
d. the course of disease is chronic
e. it is difficult to treat
232. Impetigo herpetiformis usually begins:
a. in adolescence
b. in middle-aged men
c. at puberty
d. during pregnancy
e. non of these
233.
The
two most frequent causative agents of pyoderma are:
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Proteus vulgaris
234.
Which
of following factors support development of pyoderma?
a. poor hygiene
b. using emolients
c. a defective skin barrier function
d. humid climate
e. microtrauma
235. Superficial pustular folliculitis (ostiofolliculitis, impetigo Bockhart):
a. is most commonly caused by streptococci
b. is most commonly caused by staphylococci
c. predisposing factors are humid and warm
microclimate
d. infundibulum of hair follicle is affected
e. most often affects palms and soles
236.
Mark
correct statements about superficial pustular folliculitis (ostiofolliculitis):
a. it is inflammation of skin sebaceous glands
especially their orifices
b. often spreads by shaving
c. maximum infiltration is on dermis and
hypodermis interface
d. infundibulum of hair follicle is affected
e. absence of systemic symptoms
237. Mark correct statements about furunculosis:
a. is recurring furuncles
b. is agregate of several grouped furuncles
c. immunodeficient patients are predisposed
d. is an infiltrative – suppurative process of
sweat glands
e. diabetics are predisposed
238.
The
most common predisposing factors of furunculosis are:
a. chronic carriage of bacteria in nasopharynx
b. cachectic patients
c. immunodeficient patients
d. diabetes mellitus
e. hyperhidrosis
239. Furuncle is characterized by:
a. acute deep inflammation of the skin around
inflamed hair follicle
b. lesions are painful
c. inflammation is accompained by extensive oedema
and painfulness
d. acute inflammation, suppuration and necrosis of
follicular and perifollicular tissue
e. the most common causative agent is
Staphylococcus aureus
240.
Furuncles
occurring on the central area of face are more dangerous that furuncles
occurring in other localizations because of:
a. cosmetic reason
b. painfulness
c. more frequent relapses
d. the possibility of cavernous sinus thrombosis
and meningitis
e. the possibility of paresis n. facialis
241.
Which
of the following laboratory tests should be done in reccurence of furuncles?
a. elecrophoresis of proteins
b. glycemic curve
c. rheumatoid factor
d. ASLO
e. determination antibiotic sensitivity on
causative agent
242. Mark correct statements about carbuncle:
a. is aggregate of several communicated furuncles
b. is superficial infection of hair follicle
c. is accompanied by regional lymphadenopathy,
lymphangoitis and fever
d. the most common causative agent is Trichophyton
rubrum
e. disintegrating necrosis center of furuncle
243.
Choose
appropriate therapy for furuncle and carbuncle:
a. antifungal agents
b. antiseptics
c. application of moist heat
d. topical antibiotics
e. systemic antibiotics
244.
Which drugs are not used in treatment of pyoderma?
a. antibiotics
b. antimalarials
c. antiseptics
d. antifungal agents
e. retinoids (isotretinoin)
245. Mark correct statements about nonbullous impetigo:
a. subcorneal vesicles are present
b. eroded lesions dry to form a characteristic
honey-colored crusts
c. favourite affected areas are face, area around
mouth and nasal entrance
d. painful regional lymphadenopathy may be present
e. systemic symptoms are present
246. Mark correct statements about nonbullous impetigo:
a. blisters have thicker cover and persist longer
b. vesicles are hemispheric with tense cover
c. blisters have thin cover and rupture easily
d. crusts of yellow-gold color are created on
erosions
e. epidemics can be seen in kindergartens or
paediatric wards
247. Mark correct statements about bullous impetigo:
a. blisters are large with several centimeters in
diameter
b. lesions usually occur on face
c. contents of vesicles stay clear
d. crusts of yellow-gold color are created on
erosions
e. epidemics can be seen in kindergartens or
paediatric wards
248.
Choose
the appropriate treatment for impetigo:
a. topical antibiotics
b. systemic antibiotics
c. antifungal agents
d. topical antiseptics
e. topical therapy with penicilin
249. Mark correct statements about bulla repens:
a. the most common causative agent is
Staphylococcus aureus
b. firm blister is usually localized on the tip of
digit
c. is a special form of folliculitis
d. fever is present
e. blister is painful
250.
Mark correct statements about dermatepidermatitis
microbica erythematosquamosa:
a. disease most commonly occurs on the shins,
especially in people with circulatory disorders
b. is the starting point to form furuncles
c. lesion are often extensive, sharply defined,
covered by large thin scales
d. lesions are covered by many pustules
e. scalp and retroauricular area may also be
affected
251. Dermatepidermatitis microbica erythematosquamosa is characterized by:
a. trunk is the most commonly affected
b. lesion is covered by thin large scales
c. lesion is covered by thick oily scales
d. circinate lesion has a tendency to central
healing
e. skin under the scales is dark-red, shiny and
dry
252.
Mark the
most common site of erysipelas:
a. hands
b. face
c. shin
d. perigenital area
e. without any favourite affected area
253.
Mark
typical findings of erysipelas:
a. asymmetrical demarcated erythema and oedema
b. diarrhea
c. swelling of joints
d. shiver
e. fever
254.
Mark
correct statements about erysipelas:
a. develops after penetration the group A of
beta-haemolytic streptococci into lymph spaces of skin
b. often occurs on the face
c. recurrence is rare
d. sometimes manifested in the bullous form
e. most causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus
255.
Which
symptom does occur in erysipelas?
a. shiver
b. sharply defined erythema with oedema
c. painfulness to touch
d. pruritus
e. fever
256.
Mark
correct statements about erysipelas:
a. disease is highly contagious
b. infection is transmitted from person to person
rarely
c. tiny erosions and rhagas are the site
penetration of infection
d. after healing remains immunity
e. often recurs in the same place
257.
Which of
these bacterial diseases are the most contagious?
a. bullous impetigo
b. folliculitis
c. furuncle
d. nonbullous impetigo
e. erysipelas
258.
Mycobacterium
tuberculosis can be proved in lesions:
a. only by hyperergic form of cutaneous
tuberculosis
b. only by anergic form of cutaneous tuberculosis
c. by normergic and anergic form of cutaneous
tuberculosis
d. by hyperergic and normergic form of cutaneous
tuberculosis
e. by hyperergic and anergic form of cutaneous
tuberculosis
259.
Tuberculosis
ulcerosa cutis et mucosae develops:
a. in patients with progressive tuberculosis of
internal organs
b. direct contact with causative agent
c. in normergic people
d. in hyperergic people
e. in anergic people
260.
The most
common sites of tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae are:
a. the site of disintegration of erythema
induratum
b. around body orifices
c. the fingers
d. the conjunctiva
e. site of BCG vaccination
261.
Tuberculosis
ulcerosa cutis is characterized by:
a. begins as papula, later evolves into pustula
which does not ulcerate
b. ulcers are numerous shallow with undermined
edges
c. ulcers are painful
d. ulcers are solitary deep with flat edges
e. localization of lesions corresponding with
affected internal organs
262.
Tuberculosis
cutis verrucosa develops:
a. by haematogenous dissemination
b. within the lymfatic vessels
c. only in areas previous skin disease
d. in surgical wounds
e. in site penetrations exogenous infection
263.
Tuberculosis
cutis verrucosa is characterized by:
a. painful infiltrate with smooth surface
b. painless brown-red infiltrate with
hyperkeratotic verrucous surface
c. the infiltrate resolves centrally and becomes
annular in shape
d. significant systemic symptoms
e. lymph nodes are usually affected
264.
Tuberculosis
cutis verrucosa is usually localized on:
a. feet
b. trunk
c. gluteal area
d. hands
e. scalp
265.
Mark
correct statements about tuberculosis cutis luposa:
a. course is short and heals ad integrum
b. serious complication may be development of
squamous cell carcinoma in the scar of lupus vulgaris
c. mycobacteria may arise from healed primary
cutaneous tuberculosis where survived and were reactivated
d. the basic morphological finding is pin-head
sized nodules of red-brown or apple-jelly color
e. disease may lead to mutilation of nose and ears
266.
The most
common sites of lupus vulgaris are:
a. acral areas – distal part of extremities
b. above lymph nodes
c. around body orifices
d. nose, cheeks, ears
e. scalp
267.
What can
occur on the basis of lupus vulgaris?
a. squamous cell carcinoma
b. erysipelas recidivans
c. pyoderma chronicum
d. elephantiasis
e. herpes zoster
268.
Diagnostic
identification of mycobacteria may be used at:
a. lupus vulgaris
b. tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae
c. scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa)
d. papulonecrotic tuberculid
e. ertythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis
indurativa)
269.
Mark
correct statements about scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa):
a. is hyperergic form of tuberculosis
b. spreads per continuitatem and haematogenous
pathway
c. lesion begins as a firm nodule,followed by
central liquefaction necrosis and perforation of abscess externaly
d. is characterized by variety regression of signs
with formation of new nodules, sinus tracts and ulcers
e. heals ad integrum
270.
Which form
of cutaneous tuberculosis is associated with positive tuberkulin test?
a. tuberculosis ulcerosa cutis et mucosae
b. papulonecrotic tuberculid
c. lupus vulgaris
d. erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis
indurativa)
e. tuberculosis cutis verrucosa
271.
Favourite
affected area of erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis indurativa) is:
a. extensors of forearms
b. flexors of forearms
c. extensors of lower part of legs
d. flexors of lower part of legs
e. trunk
272.
Mark
correct statements about lichen scrofulosus (tuberculosis cutis lichenoides):
a. develops in normergic people
b. the most affected sites are lateral areas of
trunk
c. eruption consists of tiny papules with tendency
to confluent
d. eruption may disappear spontaneously within a
few weeks
e. lesions may disintegrated
273.
What are
preventive precautions of tuberculosis?
a. isolation of patients
b. BCG vaccination
c. follow up of exposed persons
d. treatment patients with nidrazid
e. treatment patients with griseofulvin
274.
Which form
of tuberculosis cutis heals ad integrum?
a. none
b. tuberculosis cutis luposa
c. erythema induratum Bazin (tuberculosis cutis
indurativa)
d. lichen scrofulosus (tuberculosis cutis
lichenoides)
e. scrofuloderma (tuberculosis cutis coliquativa)
275.
Sarcoidosis
is caused by:
a. agents of deep fungal infection
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. viral agents
d. genetic factors
e. cancer
276. What is characteristic for disseminated
miliaris sarcoidosis?
b.
nodules of
size greater than 1 cm
c. favourite affected areas on
the face, above extensors of extremities
d. favourite affected areas on the trunk
e. involvement of internal organs is common
277.
What is
present in large nodular type of cutaneous sarcoidosis?
a. lesions in several cm
b. telangiectases
c. vesicles and pustules
d. ulcers
e. significant systemic symptoms
278.
Lupus
pernio is a clinical variant of:
a. lupus vulgaris
c. lupus erythematosus chronicus
d. photodermatosis
e. sarcoidosis
279. Angiolupoid sarcoidosis is characterized by:
a. typical localization on nose
c. telangiectases
e. typical localization on chin
280. Which localizations are appropriated to do
examination of the smear in acute gonorrhoea in fertile women?
a. vulva
b. urethra
c. vagina
d. cervix
e. rectum
281.
Gonorrhoea
is confirmed by:
a.
evidence
of causative agent in dark field
b. evidence of diplococci in Gram-stained smear
c. examination of native smear
d. evidence of regional lymph node swelling
e. serological examination
282. Which staining is used for evidence of
Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a. Giemsa staining
b. carbolfuchsin staining
c. methylen blue staining
d. Ziehl – Neelsen staining
e. Gram staining
283. What is a purpose of two glass urine test in
examination of gonorrhoea in men?
a.
detection
of salts in the urine
b.
specification
of the localization of gonorrhoea
c.
acquisition
of material for culture gonococci
d. preparation for better taking of material for
microscopic examination and culture
284.
Why
gonorrhoic infection primarily affects male and female urethra, cervix, rectum
and ocular conjunctiva, as well as vulva and vagina of young girls?
a.
these
localizations are most exposed to gonorrhoic infection
b.
mucous
membranes of the human body are highly susceptible to gonorrhoic infection
c. they are covered with squamous
epithelium
d. they are covered with columnar epithelium or transitional epithelium
e. they have a common
basis in hormonal causes
285.
What is
the usual incubation period for gonorrhea in men?
a. 1-2 days
b. 3-5 days
c. 6-8 days
d. 1-2 weeks
e. 3-4 weeks
286. What are the first clinical findings of
urethritis gonorrhoica anterior acuta in man?
a. burning in the orifice of the urethra
especially during urination
b.
initially
mucous discharge appears and after a few hours a dense purulent yellow,
yellow-green discharge
c.
in the
first days of infection tiny rhagas that cause escalation burning sensation are
often manifest in the orifice of the urethra
d. fever
e.
enlarged
regional lymph nodes
287.
Few
extracellular gonococci in the smear suggest:
a. acute gonorrhea
b. relapse of acute gonorrhea
c. gonorrhoic cystitis
d. chronic gonorrhea
e. gonorrhea affects
the front part of the urethra
288.
What are
the manifestations of urethritis gonorrhoica posterior acuta in men?
a.
increase
the amount of purulent discharge from the orifice of the urethra
b.
urge for
frequent urination of small quantum of urine
c. terminal hematuria
d. painful erection
e. burning pain during urination
289. Assign to gonorrhea anterior acuta tight
finding:
a.
there is
mucus, epithelia, few leukocytes and little extracellular gonococci in the
smear
b. in the two glass urine test both urine portions
are cloudy
c. in the two glass urine test only the second
urine portion is cloudy
d. in the two glass urine test only the first
urine portion is cloudy
e. there are many leukocytes and intracellular
gonococci in the smear
290. Assign to gonorrhoea anterior et posterior
chronica tight finding:
a. there is mucus, epithelia, few leukocytes and
little extracellular gonococci in the smear
b. in the two glass urine test both urine portions
are cloudy
c. in the two glass urine test only the second
urine portion is cloudy
d. in the two glass urine test only the first
urine portion is cloudy
e. there are many leukocytes and intracellular
gonococci in the smear
291.
What are
the forms of prostatitis in gonorrhea?
a. prostatitis parenchymatosa
b. prostatitis granularis
c. prostatitis catarrhalis
d. prostatitis abscedens
e. prostatitis follicularis
292. The provocation method in the follow-up
examination of gonorrhea in men is done with:
a. boric acid 3% solution
b. diluted Lugol's
solution
c. rivanol 1 % solution
d. 1 % acetic acid solution
e. gentian violet 1 % solution
293.
In which
of following diseases can occur arthritis?
a. gonorrhoea
b. vulvovaginitis candidomycetica
c. psoriasis vulgaris
d. ulcus molle
e. herpes simplex genitalis
294.
Causative
agent of ulcus molle is:
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Haemophilus Ducreyi
d. Haemophilus haemolyticus
e. Streptococcus pyogenes
295.
Mark
correct statements about ulcus molle:
a. the first clinical symptoms begin after 1-3
days incubation period
b. the incubation period is 5-7 days
c. the first manifestation is a blister soon
changing to pustule which is rapidly falling apart and creates an ulcer
d. creates a cyst which ulcerates
e. begins as a papula, which occurs on red
inflamed base, changing to pustule, which ulcerates
296.
Which of
these drugs are used in treatment of ulcus molle:
a. penicillin
b. sulphonamides
c. vaccine
d. topical antibiotics
e. tetracycline
297.
Mark
correct statements about granuloma inguinale:
a. the first manifestation of disease can be a
papula, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
b. the first manifestation of disease can be a
pustule, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
c. the first manifestation of disease can be a
urtica, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
d. the first manifestation of disease can be a
cyst, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
e. the first manifestation of disease can be a
nodule, which forms to a slowly growing ulcer
298.
What is
necessary for diagnosis of ulcus durum?
a. clinical features
b. examination of native specimen in dark field
c. examination of specimen with Gramm staining
d. two glass urine test
e. positive RRR in 3rd week of
infection
299.
What
examination clearly confirms the diagnosis of ulcus durum?
a. history and clinical examination
b. history of sexual contact with a person
suffering from syphilis
c. positive nontreponemal classical reactions
(RRR)
d. proof of Treponema pallidum in the dark field
e. positive TPHA test
300. Treponema pallidum is getting into the human
body usually:
a. through intact skin
b. through intact mucous membrane
c. through impaired skin
d. through impaired mucous membrane
e. by sexual intercourse
301.
Mark
correct statements about leucoderma syphiliticum:
a. occurs on the lateral sides of trunk
b. its synonym is “Venus necklace”
c. belongs to prodromal symptoms of syphilis
d. arises usually around the 5th to 6th
month after infection
e. occurs on the lateral sides of the neck
302.
Which
serological reaction to detection of syphilis may be positive already in 2nd
week of infection?
a. TPHA
b. FTA-ABS
c. VDRL
d. RRR
e. 19S IgM FTA-ABS
303.
Classical
nontreponemal reactions become positive:
a. in the 2nd week after infection
b. in the 3rd week after infection
c. in the 6th week after infection
d. in the 9th week after infection
e. in the 11th week after infection
304.
Incubation
period of syphilis is:
a. 2 weeks
b. 3 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 8 weeks
e. 10 weeks
305.
What are
the typical clinical manifestations of ulcus durum?
a. soft infiltration dark-purple color, with
verrucous surface
b. starting point for ulcer is sometimes a blister
on intact skin
c. solid infiltration dark-pink color with smooth,
shiny erosion on the surface
d. ulcer is not usually painful
e. arises on the basis of multiple flat grouped
papules
306.
What is
masked syphilis?
a. synonym for syphilis decapitated
b. delay formation of ulcus durum due to the
parallel treatment of other diseases, inadequate doses of antibiotics
c. obscure the symptoms of primary and early
secondary syphilis due to the parallel treatment of other diseases, inadequate
doses of antibiotics
d. synonym for syphilis connate
e. synonym for syphilis latens
307.
Enlargement
of regional lymph nodes by syphilis occurs:
a. in the 2nd – 3rd week
after infection
b. in the 4th – 5th week
after infection
c. in the 6th – 7th week
after infection
d. in the 8th – 9th week
after infection
e. in the 10th week after infection
308.
Mark
correct statements about syphilis secundaria recens:
a. a smaller number of larger lesions compared
with syphilis secundaria recidivans
b. lesions are symmetrically distributed
c. lesions often confluent
d. the most common is macular and papular rash
e. lesions significantly itch
309.
Mark correct
statements for secondary syphilis recidivans:
a. a tiny number of larger lesions compared with
syphilis secundaria recens
b. lesions are paler in comparison with syphilis
secundaria recens
d. the intensity of recurrent eruptions is gradually
increasing
e. lesions significantly itch
310.
Mark
correct statements about secondary syphilis:
a. occurs around the 9th - 10th
week after infection
b. typical symptoms are condylomata accuminata
c. typical symptoms are condylomata lata
d. lymph nodes are usually not enlarged
e. occurs around the 3rd to 4th
week after infection
311.
What are
the symptoms of the primary syphilis?
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. enlargement of regional lymph nodes
d. ulcus durum
e. leucoderma syphilitica
312.
Mark
correct statements about tertiary syphilis:
a. the most common manifestation is tuberous
syphilid
b.
the most
common manifestation is macular syphilid
c.
manifestations
of tuberous syphilid are painful
d. tertiary syphilis is
not infectious
e. disintegration of infiltrates forms deep ulcers
with rigid edges
313.
Mark
correct statements about tuberous syphilid:
a. tuberous syphilid is the most common clinical
form of tertiary syphilis
b.
the
essential lesion is a well-defined nodule with size to 10 mm
c.
lesions
heal without a trace
d.
lesions
tend to spread serpiginous
e.
ulcers heal
with pigmented scar
314.
Mark
correct statements about basal cell carcinoma:
a.
younger
people are mainly affected
b. in the pathogenesis excessive
UV-radiation is significant
c.
does not
affect places exposed to UV-radiation
d. telangiectases, threadlike border, irregular
pigmentation are typical
e. overgrowth to the deeper layers may result in
destruction of cartilage and bone
315.
Mark
correct statements about syphilis gummosa:
a.
initially
gumma seems as tough, elastic, painless nodule
b.
the
original nodule never disintegrates
c. disintegration of gumma forms ulcer of kidney
shape
d.
gumma
heals without a trace
e.
can also
affect the mucous membranes
316.
Congenital
syphilis of the child is manifested by the most severe forms:
a.
when
Treponema pallidum is highly virulent
b.
by
insufficient fetal nutrition
c.
when a
pregnant woman suffers from recent syphilis
d. in case of an earlier syphilitic infection of
mother
e. when the mother was treated for syphilis
sufficiently in the first 3 months of pregnancy
317.
Mark
correct statements about syphilis in pregnant women:
a. the treatment is using higher doses of
penicillin than in non-pregnant women
b. infection with syphilis is occasionally
transmitted to the fetus at the end of the second month of pregnancy
c. tertiary syphilis of mother can no longer cause
any pathological changes in the fetus
d. fetus is safely protect against possible
congenital disorders if a woman is treated in the first three months of
pregnancy
e. recent untreated syphilis of the mother in
early pregnancy causes significant fetal damage
318.
Which
symptoms are characteristic for syphilis connata praecox:
a. ulcus durum
b. syphilitic polished heels
c. parrot lines
d. coryza syphilitica
e. saber shins (curved tibias)
319.
In which
period of pregnancy, abortion of the fetus may occur as a result of mother's
syphilitic infection?
a. In 1st -2nd month
b. before 5th month
c. in 6th – 7th month
d. only after 7th month
e. abortion can't occur
320.
What are
the clinical manifestations characteristic for the Hutchinson triad?
a. deafness
b. saddle nose
c. hutchinson incisors
d. keratitis parenchymatosa
e. parrot lines
321.
The best
drug for syphilis is considered to be:
a. sulphonamides
b. streptomycin
c. penicillin
d. tetracycline
e. combination of erythromycin and iodine
322.
Which
drugs are appropriate for patient with syphilis, allergic to penicillin?
a. quinolones
b. sulphonamides
c. doxycycline
d. penicillin at the same time with
corticosteroids
e. ceftriaxone
323.
In which
syphilitic lesions Treponema pallidum can be proved?
a. ulcus durum
b. tuberous syphilid
c. alopecia areolaris syphilitica
d. condylomata lata
e. gumma
324.
Assign the
clinical forms of primary syphilis:
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. plaques opalines
d. ulcus durum
e. tuberous syphilid
325.
Assign the
clinical forms of secondary syphilis:
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. plaques opalines
d. ulcus durum
e. tuberous syphilid
326.
Assign the
clinical forms of tertiary syphilis:
a. macular syphilid
b. condylomata lata
c. plaques opalines
d. ulcus durum
e. tuberous syphilid
327.
Match the
serologic type 1 Herpes simplex virus and the diseases it brings on:
a. Herpes simplex
b. gingivostomatitis herpetica
c. Herpes simplex progenitalis
d. aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter
e. eczema herpeticum
328.
Match the
serologic type 2 Herpes simplex virus and the diseases it brings on:
a. herpes simplex
b. gingivostomatitis herpetica
c. herpes simplex progenitalis
d. aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter
e. eczema herpeticum
329.
How does
the primary herpes simplex infection proceed most frequently?
a. subclinically
b. as eczema herpeticum
c. as vulvovaginitis
d. as keratoconjuctivitis
e. as aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter
330.
In which
age group herpes simplex virus primoinfection usually occurs?
a. up to 12 months
b. 1 – 5 years
c. 6 – 10 years
d. 11 – 15 years
e. 15 – 20 years
331.
What is
the most frequent herpes simplex localization?
a. face
b. buccal mucosa
c. lips
d. conjunctiva
e. scalp
332.
Mark
correct statements about gingivostomatitis herpetica:
a. herpes simplex virus primoinfection can proceed
this way
b. occurs mostly in children
c. infection occurs as an acute illness with
fever, headache and nausea
d. after disturbance thin roof of blisters develop
grey-white erosions
e. disease is accompanied with excessive
salivation, difficulty in opening the mouth and swallowing
333.
Match the
appropriate statements for gingivostomatitis herpetica:
a. it is rare in the elderly
b. mostly 1-2 lesions, exceptionally more than 5
lesions arise
c. round surface erosions
d. manifestations are localized mostly on
tonsillae
e. excessive salivation
334.
Mark
correct statements about aphthoid Pospischill – Feyrter:
a. disease caused by candida
b. disease of mucous membranes caused by bacterial
agents
c. manifested by the cluster of vesicles on
inflamed oral cavity mucosa
d. disease may affect not only oral cavity mucosa
but also genital area
e. disease of mucous membranes caused by
dermatophytes
335.
Eczema
herpeticum is:
a. primary HSV 1 infection
b. disease associated with atopica dermatitis
c. secondary HSV 1 infection
d. disease associated with psoriasis vulgaris
e. it is not a viral infection
336.
Herpes
zoster is a secondary infection of:
a. herpes simplex
b. morbilli
c. gingivostomatitis
d. varicella
e. variola
337.
Mark
correct statements about herpes zoster:
a. disease occurs mostly in older age groups
b. numerous tiny vesicles arise on the inflamed
baser grouped into herpetiform lesions
c. Recurrent eruptions of new vesicles caused
developmental polymorphism of the clinical features
d. lesions are formed symmetrically on both body
sides along the nerve
e. disease is accompanied with the neuralgic pain
mostly in the elderly
338.
Mark
correct statements about herpes zoster:
a. bleeding into the blisters (zoster
haemorrhagicus) indicates short and mild course of disease
b. in herpes zoster ophthalmicus herpetic
keratitis and uveitis may develop
c. in herpes zoster generalisatus immunodeficient
condition has to be taken into account
d. neuralgia usually disappears simultaneously
with the recession of skin lesions
e. uncomplicated forms of herpes zoster may heal
without scar
339.
Verrucae
vulgares are caused by:
a. varicella-zoster virus
b. virus from group of poxviruses
c. human papilomavirus
d. Coxsackie virus
e. Candida albicans
340.
Mark
correct statements about verrucae vulgares:
a. it is a contagious disease only in children´s
age
b. it is a contagious disease regardless of age
c. contagiosity of the disease has not been proven
d. also healthy people can be the source of
infection
e. plantar warts are usually very painful
341.
Surface of
verrucae vulgares is:
a. smooth with depression
b. smooth only initially
c. smooth with pearl appearance
d. gradually cornifies and becomes rough and
verrucous
e. surface is not characteristic
342.
Typical long-lasting
verrucae vulgares look like:
a. tiny flat papules of the size of pinheads with
smooth surface and color of normal skin or light-brown color
b. mostly flat papules of polygonal shape with
smooth matt surface and violet-pink color
c. atypically round, sharply defined nodules 1 – 3
cm in diameter, at the periphery with violet-brown border
d. round or oval sharply defined papules up to 1
cm with rough verrucous surface usually in yellow-brown color
e. hemispherical papules up to 5 mm with smooth
central depressed surface
343.
Which
warts are painful?
a. filiform warts around eyes
b. plantar warts
c. subungual warts
d. localized on palms
e. all are painful
344.
What is
the difference between verrucae plane and verrucae vulgares?
a. size
b. spontaneous disappearing
c. surface
d. typical localization
e. none
345.
What are
the most common localizations of condylomata acuminata?
a. oral cavity mucosa
b. labia minora
c. sulcus coronarius
d. armpits
e. perianal region
346.
What are
condylomata acuminata?
a. direct consequence of the skin maceration which
accompanies inflammatory and by irritation induced processes on genitalia
b. manifestations appeared in early state of
secondary syphilis
c. infected epithelioma caused by HPV (human
papilomavirus)
d. disease of bacterial aetiology
e. disease of fungal aetiology
347.
What are
the typical signs of condylomata acuminata?
a. they resemble verrucae vulgares
b. they are transmitted by direct contact or
indirectly
c. soft consistency, maceration, malodorous
secretion
d. significant painfulness
e. itching
348.
How to
remove condylomata acuminata?
a. by radiation with Bucky marginal rays
b. with podophyllin in the solution or cream
c. by cryotherapy
d. by administration of systemic antibiotics
e. by excochleation
349.
Mark
correct statements about molluscum contagiosum:
a. papula is hemispherical, sharply defined,
violet color
b. papula is normal skin color or light-pink
c. papula is firm and smooth umbilicated usually
2-6 mm in diameter
d. manifestations are painful
e. poxvirus is a trigger
350.
Mark the
characteristic statements about molluscum contagiosum:
a. flat polygonal papules of blue-pink to blue-red
shade, isolated or linear arrangement, itching
b. hemispherical nodules with smooth surface
arranged into annular shape
c. indolent polygonal papules of light-yellow
color with inflammatory border
d. round or oval sharply defined papules of the
size of lentils with rough verrucous surface, usually grey or dirty-brown color
e. indolent hemispherical firm papules of the skin
color, size of several millimetres with central dish-shaped vallecula
351.
Mark
correct statements about stomatitis epidemica epizootica:
a. contagious virus disease easily transmissible
from animals to humans
b. rabbit is the most frequent source of infection
c. cattle is the most frequent source of infection
d. infection is induced by RNA epizootic
stomatitis virus
e. infection is induced by paravaccinia virus
352.
Mark
correct statements about clinical features of stomatitis epidemica epizootica:
a. lips and oral cavity mucosa are affected
preferably
b. nonspecific systemic symptoms develop first
c. pathologic changes do not recede spontaneously
– without treatment
d. systemic antiviral agents are always administered
in treatment
e. vesicles may develop also on upper and lower
limbs
353.
Causative
agent of lymphogranuloma venereum is:
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
e. Mycoplasma hominis
354.
Causative
agent of granuloma inguinale is:
a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Ureaplasma urealyticum
e. Mycoplasma hominis
355.
Mark
correct statements about lymphogranuloma venereum:
a. it is transmitted by sexual intercourse
b. incubation period is 2-3 days
c. lymph nodes in inguinal area are after 2-4
weeks enlarged, painful and connected with inflamed skin
d. lymph nodes colliquate and pus discharges from
numerous fistulae
e. healing is usually without a trace
356.
Molluscum
contagiosum is caused by:
a. human papilloma virus
b. herpes simplex virus
c. virus from poxviruses group
d. Coxsackie virus
e. EBV
357.
Mark the
disease in which the virus as an aetiological agent has not been proved so far:
a. herpes simplex
b. pemphigus vulgaris
c. verrucae vulgares
d. condylomata acuminata
e. molluscum contagiosum
358.
Herpes
zoster is caused by:
a. human papilloma virus
b. herpes simplex virus
c. virus from poxviruses group
d. Coxsackie virus
e. varicella-zoster virus
359.
How are
hair, scale and nail in a suspicion of fungal infection microscopically
examined?
a. gram staining
b. in lactophenol
c. Giemsa staining
d. in the solution of KOH
e. in a dark field
360.
For
cultural examination of pathologic material from dermatomycosis is used:
a. blood agar
b. Szenes medium
c. Czapek – Dox medium
d. Sabouraud´s glucose agar
e. none
361.
Which of
the following conditions are favourable for cultivation of dermatophytes?
a. light, dryness and temperature 37 ˚C
b. light, humidity and temperature 37 ˚C
c. dark, humidity and room temperature
d. dark, dryness and temperature 13-15 ˚C
e. CO2 atmosphere and temperature 28
˚C
362.
Hair
affected by which dermatophyte fluoresce under the Wood´s light?
a. all hair affected by any dermatophyte
b. Trichophyton violaceum
c. Microsporum audouinii
d. Microsporum canis
e. Trichophyton rubrum
363.
Causative
agent of pityriasis versicolor is:
a. Malassezia sp.
b. Nocardia brasiliensis
c. Pityrosporum ovale
d. Corynebacterium tenuis
e. Corynebacterium minutissimum
364.
Pityriasis
versicolor occurs in people:
a. with increased level of sugar in the blood
b. with increased level of urea in the blood
c. with dry skin
d. immunosuppressive
e. which are more sweating
365.
Typical
localization of pityriasis versicolor is:
a. trunk
b. interdigital area of feet
c. perigenital area
d. armpits
e. scalp
366.
Which
symptoms are important for diagnosis of pityriasis versicolor?
a. Köbner phenomenon
b. evidence of fine dust – like scales
c. fluorescence in Wood´s light
d. preferable localization on inner thighs
e. microscopic evidence of fungal agents
367.
What is
the relation of Candida albicans to human skin?
a. sometimes contaminates skin
b. often occurs in human skin as saprophyte
c. is occasionally pathogenic microorganism
d. always causes pathological processes in the
skin
e. the development of candidiasis involves a
number of factors from human organism
368.
Which of
the following factors are predisposing in the development of candidiasis?
a. cytostatics
b. diabetes mellitus
c. treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics
d. warm and humid environment
e. long-lasting treatment with corticosteroids
369.
Where can
develop infectious processes caused by Candida albicans?
a. on the nails
b. on the oral cavity mucosa
c. in gastrointestinal tract
d. on the mucosa of genitals
e. in intertriginous areas
370. Which of the following parts of the skin and
mucous membranes tend to be prevalent localization of candidiasis?
a. scalp
b. submammary folds in women
c. mouth
d. trunk
e. inguinal folds
371. What are the characteristic clinical signs of
candidal paronychia et onychia?
a. release of distal end of the nail
b. swollen, tight, shiny and inflamed skin of
paronychial tissue
c. pain on pressure
d. transverse ridge on nails
e. lack of eponychium
372. What diagnosis would you assume in infants with
small, whitish, increasing spots on the tongue, gums and buccal mucosa?
a. catarrh of digestive organs
b. diphtheria
c. Plaut – Vincent angina
d. oral candidiasis
e. beginning of leukoplakia
373. What is often the causative agent of oral
candidiasis in the elderly persons suffering from digestive disorders, bad fitting
prosthesis, or chronic use of antibiotics, pipe smoking?
a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Candida
d. Micrococcus
e. Fusobacterium
374. Candidal paronychia et onychia is most common
in:
a. infants
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. confectioners
e. masons
375. Oral candidiasis is most common in:
a. infants
b. diabetics
c. housewives
d. confectioners
e. masons
376. Erythema mycoticum infantile (Ibrahim – Beck)
is most common in:
a. infants
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. confectioners
e. masons
377. Choose the appropriate treatment of
candidiasis:
a. fluconazole
b. erythromycin
c. terbinafine
d. tetracycline
e. ketoconazole
378. In the treatment of candidiasis is not used:
a. imidazole derivatives
b. penicillin
c. gentian violet
d. nystatin
e. fluconazole
379. Fungal infections on the skin are characterized
by:
a. there are round, sharply defined lesions with
maximum expression in the central part of the lesion
b. they are round or polycyclic sharply defined
lesions with maximum expression in the peripheral zone
c. lesions are mainly on the mucous membranes
d. dermatophytes grow through the upper layer of
epidermis or nail plate and hair
e. causal agent is identified only by serological
testing
380. Mark three most common causative agents of
tinea pedis (epidermophytia pedis):
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton rosaceum
e. Trichophyton interdigitale
381. The most commonly causative agent of tinea
manuum (epidermophytia manuum) is:
a. Epidermophyton floccosum
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Trichophyton interdigitale
d. Trichophyton schoenleinii
e. Microsporum canis
382. Tinea inguinalis (epidermophytia inguinalis)
caused by Trichophyton rubrum is characterized by:
a. the edges of the lesions are nibbled,
intermittent cracked
b. on the edge of the lesion are small vesicles
present
c. the inflammation is more intense in the central
part of the lesion then in the peripheral zone
d. itching
e. lesions are round with a continuous rim
383. Mark the correct statements about tinea pedum
(epidermophytia pedum):
a. infection is often transmitted indirectly in
the swimming pool, shared showers, sports facilities
b. diagnosis is confirmed by evidence of fungi and
positive fungal culture
c. erosion between the toes can be an entrance for
erysipelas
d. treatment with penicillin is used
e. treatment with terbinafine is used
384. Which of these pathogenic fungi does most
commonly cause pathological changes on the nails (tinea unguium, onychomycosis)?
a. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Trichophyton interdigitale
c. Trichophyton rubrum
d. Trichophyton violaceum
e. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
385. Which tests are used in pityriasis versicolor?
a. examination in dark field
b. microscopic examination using KOH solution
c. Wood`s light examination
d. dermatoscopy
e. preparation stained by Giemsa
386. Interdigital tinea pedis and its causative
agent Trichophyton interdigitale is characterized by:
a. the skin of all interdigital spaces is usually
affected
b. the 3rd and the 4th
interdigital spaces are predominantly affected
c. lesions are slightly inflamed and they have a
relative dry nature
d. all nail plates are always affected
e. macerated skin is white, madescent erosions and
rhagas create
387. Interdigital candidiasis is characterized by:
a. skin of all interdigital spaces is usually
affected
b. the 3rd and the 4th
interdigital spaces are predominantly affected
c. lesions are slightly inflamed and they have a
relative dry nature
d. skin is whitish, macerated, moist with erosions
and rhagas
e. all nail plates are affected
388. Irritant contact dermatitis is characterized
by:
a. lesions occur only in the location of the
irritant
b. lesions spread to surrounding
c. monomorphic lesions are distributed evenly
around the area
d. non well demarcated edges of the lesion
e. well demarcated edges of the lesion
389. Two most frequent causative agents of Tinea
profunda in Slovakia are:
a. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Trichophyton violaceum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Trichophyton rubrum
390. Mark correct statement about tinea:
a. causative agent lives mainly in keratin
b. disease is contagious
c. tinea is listed among notifiable contagious
disease
d. affects mainly mucous membrane
e. affects mainly skin
391. Tinea profunda (Kerion) is:
a. form of deep pyoderma
b. disease caused by virus
c. disease caused by yeast
d. special form of alopecia
e. deep fungal infection caused by dermatophytes
392. Mark the correct statements about tinea
capitis:
a. causative agent is Microsporum audouinii
b. causative agent is Malassezia sp.
c. form well demarcated lesions
d. occurs mainly in childhood
e. Wood´s light examination shows bright green
fluorescence
393. Mark the correct statements about favus:
a. causative agent is Trichophyton rubrum
b. causative agent is Trichophyton schoenleinii
c. causative agent is Microsporum audouinii
d. if the process takes a long time, there arise
atrophy and alopecia
e. Wood´s light examination of affected hair shows
bright green fluorescence
394. Tinea capitis caused by genus Microsporum is
characterized by clinical findings:
a. multiple small diseminated scaly areas with
thinned hairs, which break off at the scalp surface
b. round well demarcated areas, affected hairs
break off 2-4 mm above the scalp surface
c. round well demarcated areas appearance of
normal skin with hair loss
d. non well demarcated areas without scales
e. Wood´s light examination of affected hair shows
bright green fluorescence
395. Nonimflammatory tinea capitis (trichophyton
type) is characterized by clinical findings:
a. multiple small disseminated scaly areas with
thinned hairs, which break off at or near to the scalp surface
b. round well demarcated areas with affected hair
broken off 2-4 mm above the scalp surface
c. round well demarcated areas appearance of
normal skin with hair loss
d. non well demarcated areas with massive scales
e. Wood´s light examination of affected hair shows
bright green fluorescence
396. Alopecia areata is characterized by:
a. multiple small disseminated scaly areas with
thinned hairs, which break off at the scalp surface
b. round well demarcated areas with affected hair
broken off 3 mm above the scalp surface
c. round well demarcated areas appearance of normal
skin with hair loss
d. non well demarcated areas with massive scales
e. Wood´s light examination of affected areas
shows fluorescence
397. Causative agent of tinea versicolor (pityriasis
versicolor) is:
a. Trichophyton schoenleinii
b. Trichophyton violaceum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Malassezia sp.
e. Microsporum audouinii
398. Causative agent of tinea capitis is:
a. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Trichophyton tonsurans
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Malassezia sp.
e. Microsporum audouinii
399. Causative agent of favus is:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Microsporum audouinii
400. Causative agent of inflammatory tinea capitis
(Kerion Celsi) is:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Microsporum audouinii
401. Causative agent of trichophytia superficialis
capillitii is:
a. Trichophyton violaceum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton schoenleinii
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Microsporum audouinii
402. Antropophilic dermatophytes are:
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Microsporum gypseum
403. Zoophilic dermatophytes are:
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Microsporum gypseum
404. Geophilic dermatophytes are:
a. Trichophyton rubrum
b. Trichophyton verrucosum
c. Trichophyton violaceum
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
e. Microsporum gypseum
405. Which of the following fungal infections are
caused by antropophilic dermatophytes?
a. inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi)
b. nodular folliculitis (epidermophytia
granulomatosa nodularis cruris)
c. tinea capitis
d. tinea pedis
e. epidermophytia unguium
406. Which of the following fungal infections are
caused by zoophilic dermatophytes?
a. inflammatory tinea capitis (Kerion Celsi)
b. nodular folliculitis (epidermophytia
granulomatosa nodularis cruris)
c. favus caused by Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d. favus caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii
e. tinea unguium
407. The host of Trichophyton verrucosum is:
a. a human
b. a cat
c. a cattle
d. rodents
e. a dog
408. The host of Trichophyton mentagrophytes is:
a. a human
b. a cat
c. a cattle
d. rodents
e. a dog
409. The host of Microsporum canis is:
a. a human
b. a cat
c. a cattle
d. rodents
e. a dog
410. Choose the group of people in which Candida
albicans cause a disease most frequently:
a.
persons
working with hay (feeders, etc.)
c. housewives
d. gardeners
411. Choose the group of people in which Microsporum
gypseum cause a disease most frequently:
a. persons working with hay (feeders, etc.)
b. adolescents
c. housewives
d. gardeners
e. confectioners
412. Choose the group of people in which
Trichophyton mentagrophytes cause a disease most frequently:
a. dog keepers
b. livestock keepers
d. swimming pool staff
e. confectioners
413. Choose the group of people in which
Trichophyton verrucosum cause a disease most frequently:
d. swimming pool staff
e. confectioners
414. Choose the group of people in which
Trichophyton interdigitale cause a disease most frequently:
a. barbers
b. farmers
c.
workers in
the fruit-growing and canning industry
d. swimming pool visitors
e. confectioners
415. Choose the group of people in which Candida
albicans cause a disease most frequently:
a. barbers
b. farmers
d. swimming pool visitors
e. confectioners
416. Choose the group of people in which
Trichophyton rubrum cause a disease most frequently:
a. barbers
b. farmers
c. workers in the fruit-growing and canning
industry
d. swimming pool visitors
e. confectioners
417. What is mykid?
a. primary infection of
dermatophytes
b.
dissemination
of spores of dermatophytes to internal organs
d.
allergic
manifestations induced by decay substances or metabolites of dermatophytes away from the fungal burden
e. secondary infection of dermatophytes
418. Which dermatosis is compulsorily notifiable?
a. candidiasis
b. trichophytia
c. microsporia
d. tinea
e. trichomycosis axillaris
419.
Causative agent of scabies is a species which is
appropriate to the genus:
a. pediculus
b. thrombiculus
c. pediculoides
d. sarcoptes
e. thyrogliphidae
420. Typical localizations
for the occurrence of intraepidermal tunnels (burrows) in scabies in adults
are:
a. palms and soles
b. extensors of extremities
c.
parts of
the body covered by clothing
e. interdigital web spaces of the hands
421. Symptoms of hypersensitivity in scabies are:
a. inflammatory nodules
b. erythemas
c. wheals
d. itching without lesions
e. oedemas
422. Transmission of
human scabies can be caused by:
c. direct and long-term contact with the infected
person
d. clothing
423. Crusted scabies (Norwegian scabies) is:
a. geographic variant of human scabies
b. variant of animal scabies
c.
atypical
form of scabies in immune-depressed people
d.
term for
the skin manifestations, which are not related to infestations with the mite
Sarcoptes scabiei
e. variant of scabies in children
424. The first symptom of pediculosis capitis is:
a. maculae coeruelae
d. fever
425. Which clinical manifestations are caused by
Pediculus capitis?
a. urticaria with central punctate haemorrhage
b. papulovesicles, urticaria
c. matt, dry, in flocks sticking hair
d. maculae ceruleae
e. parallel excoriations between shoulder blades
426. Mark clinical features caused by Pediculus
pubis
a. urticaria with central punctate haemorrhage
b. papulovesicles, urticaria
c. matt, dry, in flaks sticking hair
d. maculae ceruleae
e. parallel excoriations between shoulder blades
427. Ixodes ricinus may cause:
a. erysipelas
b. erythema migrans
c. persistent oedema of affected parts of the skin
d. lymphadenosis cutis benigna
e. Lyme disease
428. The most reliable diagnostic sign for morbus
Darier is:
a. the arrangement and localization of lesions
b. histological findings
c. the period when first symptoms of disease occur
d. mental retardation
e. itching
429. Mark correct statements about ephelides:
a. usually appear in childhood
b. their intensity increases into adulthood
c. freckles increase in number in summer
d. their intensity increases in summer
e. inheritance is autosomal dominant
430. The pigmented macules in Peutz – Jeghers
syndrome may appear:
a. on external parts of nasal wings and on dorsal
part of the nose
b. on dorsal parts of hands
c. around the mouth and on oral mucosa
d. on the neck
e. anywhere on the skin but always grouped
431. Symptoms of Peutz – Jeghers syndrome are:
a. whitish – brown macules reminding ephelides
b. pigmented patches never affecting the mucous
membranes
c. pigmented macules around mouth and on the oral
mucosa
d. polyps in the intestinal tract
e. hypopigmentations of the extremities
432. Which of these diseases are manifested by
pigmentation of the mucous membranes?
a. morbus Addison
b. syndroma Peutz – Jeghers
c. ephelides
d. centrofacial lentiginosis
e. melanodermitis toxica
433. Melasma may be associated with:
a. the use of oral contraceptives
c. pregnancy
d. the combined effect of hormonal changes and UV
radiation
e. renal dysfunction
434. Piebaldism (partial albinism) is:
a. depigmentations on hairless skin
b. clinical feature of vitiligo in the scalp
c. congenital defects in melanin production, in
which white hair grow on round depigmented area
d. naevus anaemicus is synonym
e. well demarcated skin depigmentation caused by
spasm of blood vessels
435. What is the nature of vitiligo?
a. previous inflammatory processes
b. persistent spasm of blood vessels
c. absence of originally present melanocytes
d. congenital defects in melanin production
e. autoimmune processes consider in the
aetiopathogenesis
436. Vitiligo occurs most frequently:
a. on the face
b. on the hands
c.
on the upper arms
d. on the thigh and knee
e. on the tibia
437. Mark the correct statements about vitiligo:
a.
is a congenital disorder of skin pigment
production
b.
the first symptoms usually appear in childhood
c. symptoms are most commonly on the face, neck
and hands
d. subjective problems or systemic features don´t
occur
e.
development of lesions is accompanied by a
feeling of tension in the skin
438. Vitiligo is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth
c. forms in the location of the previous
dermatoses
d.
occurs in childhood but also later
e.
margins are always hyperpigmented
439. Albinizmus is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth
c. forms in the location of the previous
dermatoses
d. occurs in childhood but also later
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
440. Naevus anaemicus is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b.
it occurs from birth or from early childhood
c. forms in the location of the previous
dermatoses
d. occurs in adulthood
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
441. Leukoderma is characterized by:
a. does not react with hyperemia after friction
b. it occurs from birth
c. forms in the location of the previous
dermatoses
d. occurs only in childhood
e. margins are always hyperpigmented
442. Mark the correct statements about halo naevus:
a. the most frequently affected is trunk
b.
it is lentigo surrounded
by vitiligo
c.
it is a pigmented fibroma surrounded by
depigmented margin
d.
it is a pigmented naevus surrounded by a
depigmented margin
e. it may be the first sign of developing vitiligo
443. Leukoderma may arise:
a. in psoriasis vulgaris
b. in pityriasis rosea
c. in gonorrhoea
d. in syphilis
e. in atopic dermatitis
444. What is dyschromia?
a.
discoloration of the skin resulting from the
accumulation of exogenous pigment into the skin
b. the current incidence of hyperpigmentation and
depigmentation in some areas
c.
discoloration of the skin resulting from the
accumulation of melanin in the skin
d. discoloration of the skin resulting from the
accumulation of another endogenous pigment as melanin in the skin
e.
discoloration of the skin resulting from the of
accumulation of any endogenous dye-stuff
445. Haemochromatosis is dyschromia, in which
following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
446. Argyria is dyschromia, in which following
substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
447. Ochronosis is dyschromia, in which following
substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
448. Chrysiasis is dyschromia, in which following
substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
449. Haemosiderosis is dyschromia, in which
following substances cumulate in the skin:
a. silver
b. hemosiderin
c. melanin
d. pigment in alcaptonuria
e. gold
450. Demarcated hyperpigmentation can be caused by:
a. hormonal contraceptives
b.
chronic exposure to heat
c. morbus Addison
d. bergamot oil
e. infection caused by Malassezia sp.
451. Acne vulgaris is characterized by:
a. inflammatory process of apocrine sweat glands
b. inflammatory process of eccrine sweat glands
c. inflammatory process of sebaceous glands
d. inflammatory process of the follicle and
sebaceous gland
e. inflammatory process of follicle and retention
of sebum
452. When does acne vulgaris most often occur?
a. in childhood
b. in adolescence
c. in adulthood
d. by abstain of sexual activity
e. by prolonged use of certain drugs
453. Mark the incorrect statements about acne
vulgaris:
a. mostly affects young people in adolescence
b. hyperkeratosis of the hair follicle
infundibulum causes formation of comedones
c. in the formation participates sebostasis
d. acne conglobata is
one of the easier forms of acne
e. in the formation participates seborrhoea
454. Acne indurata is characterised by:
a. tough, brownish-red nodules, painful on
palpation
b. purulent lesions are disintegrate outside and
usually heal with scars
c. present are only closed and open comedones
d. healing is usually without a trace
e.
typical manifestations are deep seated cysts
455. Acne conglobata is characterised by:
a. it is the most severe form of acne
b. abscendens nodules and fistula formations may
be present in the clinical features
c. there are no comedones in the clinical features
d. there are no scars in the clinical features
e. can be localized perigenital and axillary
456. Which substances should be preventively avoided
in patients with acne vulgaris?
a. chlorine
b. resorcinol
c. tar
d.
mineral oils and fats
e. vitamin A
457. What can participate in aetiopathogenesis of
rosacea?
a. heredity
b. menstrual disturbances
c. hyperthyroidism
d.
disorders of the digestive tract
e. vasoneurosis
458. Mark the correct statements about rosacea:
a. rosacea has an
identical location as acne vulgaris
b. rosacea occurs only
in women
c. erythema and telangiectases
occur
d. rosacea occurs most frequently in adolescents
e.
in the clinical features comedones are present
459. The course of rosacea may complicate by the
occurence of:
a. acne conglobata
b. iridocyclitis
c. conjunctivitis
d. rhinophyma
e. keratitis
460. What is rhinophyma?
a.
manifestation of lymphocyte
leukemia
on the nose
b. angiolupoid
c. hypertrophy of nasal skin and sebaceous glands
d.
hypertrophic form of acne vulgaris
e.
keloid process on the nose
461. Rhinophyma is characterized by:
a. the nose has “cauliflower” appearance with
enhanced follicular orifices
b.
hypertrophy
of the sebaceous glands and connective tissue on the nose
c.
the skin retains normal color, but becomes rough
d.
telangiectases on
the skin
e.
hyperplastic changes on the chin
462. Mark the correct statements about perioral
dermatitis (dermatitis rosaceiformis):
a.
it is a dermatitis that results from
hypersensitivity to lipstick
b. occurs most often in young women
c. favourite affected area is perioral
d.
typical finding are telangiectases
e.
the clinical picture is characterized by
erythema with small papules and flushed papulovesicles
463. What is the daily limit of hair loss?
a. up to 10
b. 20 – 30
c. 70 – 100
d. 110 – 150
e. 150-200
464. Trichotillomania is
caused by:
a. congenital defect of hair growth
b. rough skin friction of itching skin
c. excessive tension induced by various
hairstyling practises
d. chemical treatment of hair
e. repetitive hair manipulations by the patients
own hands
465. Mark the correct statements about alopecia
areata:
a. it is manifested as diffuse hair loss
b. it is manifested as noncicatricial focal hair
loss
c. it is manifested as circumscribed area with
atrophic skin
d. scars are occasionally created in the area
e. alopetic areas can occur anywhere on the body
parts with hair
466. Which are characteristic manifestations of
alopecia areata?
a. rapid hair loss with the creation of sharply
defined lesions, which tend to confluent
b. alopetic areas occur most commonly in the
occipital and temporal scalp
c. hair follicles are not preserved
d. subjective difficulties usually are not present
e. sebum and sweat production is increased on the
alopetic areas
467. Ophiasis means:
a. androgenetic alopecia
b. the form of alopecia areata, which leads to
atrophy
c. strips hair loss on the scalp border
d. parasitic disease
e. all forms of focal alopecia, which affect
larger scalp areas
468. Mark the statements about pseudopelade
Brocq:
a. hair loss in a small circumscribed areas
with subsequent scars
b. hair loss in a small circumscribed areas
without atrophy
c. hair loss in a slow increasing, confluent areas
with atrophic skin
d. hair loss in non well defined small areas
without atrophy
e. skin is not inflammatory altered, hair
follicles are not present
469. Mark correct statements about pseudopelade
Brocq:
a. irreversible
character of alopecia
b. isolated hair or clumps of normal hair on
pathological areas
c. skin of the lesion is slightly decreased,
tight, shiny, atrophic
d. lesion is painful on touch
e. hair follicles are not present
470. Irreversible alopecia includes:
a. telogen effluvium
b. trichotillomania
c. alopecia areata
d. pseudopelade Brocq
e. hirsutism
471. Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus is a disease:
a. of connective tissue
b. of sebaceous glands
c. affecting only the epidermis
d. bullous
e. variant of scleroderma
472. Diseases of connective tissue are the disease:
a. with immune pathogenesis
b. on the basis of congenital disposition
c. on the basis of the circulatory disturbances
d. on the basis of an allergy to bacterial toxins
e. often accompanied by signs of involvement of
internal organs
473. Mark correct factors which support
development of discoid lupus erythematosus:
a. drugs (thiazide diuretics)
b. hormonal dysfunction
c. exposure to sunlight
d. gastrointestinal disorders
e. herpetic infections
474. Which are the favourite areas for discoid lupus
erythematosus?
a. ears
b. back
c. palms
d. nose and cheeks
e. thighs
475. Hyperkeratotic spicules on lower surface of
white-yellow scales (carpet tack sign) are typical for:
a. psoriasis vulgaris
b. morbus Darier
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. discoid lupus erythematosus
e. parapsoriasis
476. Clinical features of discoid lupus
erythematosus include:
a. sharply defined chronic indurated
plaques with scales
b. healing ad integrum
c. oral cavity mucosa is affected
occasionally
d. Nikolsky sign is positive
e. carpet tack sign is positive
477. Chilblain lupus is:
a. form of lupus vulgaris
b. involves acral areas
c. located on ears
d. located in oral cavity
mucosa
e. form of discoid lupus erythematosus
478. Which of these histological findings are
characteristic for discoid lupus erythematosus?
a. disappearance of basement membrane
b. thickening of basement membrane
c. parakeratotic changes in horny layer
d. perivascular and perifollicular inflammatory
lymphocyte cells infiltrate
e. follicular hyperkeratosis
479. Diagnosis of discoid lupus erythematosus is
based on:
a. direct immunofluorescent examination
b. culture
c. histological examination
d. positive patch tests
e. clinical picture
480. Choose the appropriate treatment of discoid lupus erythematosus:
a. antibiotics
b. corticosteroids
c. antifungal agents
d. cytostatics
e. antimalarials
481. Choose the appropriate treatment of lupus erythematosus:
a. corticosteroids
b. Bucky rays radiotherapy
c. kryotherapy
d. sunscreens
e. antibiotics
482. What is characteristic for systemic lupus
erythematosus?
a. the disease is provoked by UV radiation
b. the disease begins often with fever, lassitude,
loss of appetite
c. men are affected slightly more than women
d. histological changes of collagenosis are
present in any part of skin
e. „butterfly rash“ on the face
483. For skin manifestations of systemic lupus
erythematosus is typical:
a.
accompanying
symptoms are erythematous macules, telangiectases and
small haemorrhages on the fingers, especially on fingertips and around the
nails
b.
skin
manifestations are definitely pathognomonic
c.
vasculitis may remain under the clinical features of
urticarial vasculitis, livedo reticularis and vasculitis allergica
d.
adnexal
changes may be present by hair loss
e. skin manifestations are present in each patient
with systemic lupus erythematosus
484.
Lupus erythematosus is asociated with:
a. peptic ulcers
b. arthralgia of small joints
d. nephritis and proteinuria
e. bilateral parotitis and inflammation of
lacrimal glands
485. Choose the appropriate treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus:
a. antihistamines
b. immunosuppressive therapy
c. high doses of systemic corticosteroids
d. protection from UV radiation
e. antimalarials
486. What is characteristic for systemic sclerosis?
a. women are affected more than men
b. sclerodactylia
c. Raynaud syndrome is not present
d.
fibrotic
processes may involve the gastrointestinal system
e. if a scalp is
affected, alopecia may occur
487. What is characteristic for morphea?
a. women are affected more than men
b. sclerodactylia
c. lilac ring
d.
sclerotic
changes are present in oesophagus
e.
loss of facial expressions
488.
Mark skin
manifestations of limited form of systemic sclerosis:
b.
sclerotic
changes in the skin, beginning on the trunk and spreading to the periphery and
extremities
c. microstomia
d. sclerodactylia
e.
small
necrotic ulcers on the distal phalanges
489.
What
internal disorders may occur in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
b. fibrotic changes of kidneys
c.
damage of
bone marrow and haematopoesis
d. changes of myocardium
e. fibrotic changes of lungs
490.
What signs
and symptoms are present in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
a. food regurgitation, malabsorption
e. spina bifida
491. What are the typical histological
findings of sclerosis?
a.
overgrowth
and thickening of collagen fibers
b. overgrowth of elastic fibers
c. rich chronic inflammatory infiltrate in whole
derma
d. perivascular infiltrate of lymphocytes
e. reduction of hair follicles
492.
What is
used in treatment of sclerosis?
a. antimalarials
b. corticosteroids
c. antihistamines
d. penicillin
e. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
493. Lilac ring is typical for:
a. morphea
b. diffuse sclerosis
c. lichen sclerosus et atrophicus
d. lichen planus
e. discoid lupus erythematosus
494. Mark the correct statements
about scleroedema adultorum:
a. elastic fibers are affected
b. large amount of mucopolysaccharides in derma
c. disease is a variant of sclerodermas
d. aetiological factor can be diabetes mellitus
e. can be cured ad integrum
495.
What
disease is probable when a patient complains of muscle pain, has
trouble climbing stairs, combing and shaving and a general weakness?
a. granuloma annulare
b. lichen myxoedematosus
c. dermatomyositis
d. morphea
e. scleroedema adultorum of Buschke
496. Mark the correct statements about
dermatomyositis:
a. it is an autoimmune disease
b. is often associated with an occult
malignancy
c.
skin
manifestations are most often on a face and hands
d.
facial
expression is not affected
e. muscles are not affected
497.
Which of
these symptoms confirm the diagnosis of dermatomyositis?
a. increased creatinine in urine in an active
period
b.
reduced
serum levels of muscle enzymes
c. lupus band test is positive
d.
electromyographic
examination
e. biopsy from affected muscle groups
498. Dermatomyositis is characterized by:
a.
development
of permanent changes in the skin with stiffness
b.
finding
Gottron papules on the dorsal surfaces of fingers of hands
c. favourite affected areas on a face and hands
d. „lilac ring“
e.
facial
expression of sadness, with reduced facial expression
499. Granuloma annulare occurs:
a. only in men
b. mostly in women
c. usually in the older age groups
d. especially among young people
e. usually in young children
500. Granuloma annulare is characterized by:
a. creation of solid papules with smooth surface,
with skin color or slightly red
b. centrifugal spread with peripheral raised edge
c. significant tenderness on pressure
d. no subjective symptoms
e. healing by scar
501. Cells containing melanin:
a. formed in the dermis, but migrate into the
epidermis
b. formed and stay in dermis
c. formed in epidermis, but migrate into the
dermis
d. formed and stay in epidermis
e. formed in hypodermis
502. Where is the greatest risk of melanomas?
a. in the naevus sebaceus
b. in the naevus flammeus
c. in the naevus anaemicus
d. in the naevus coeruleus
e. in the naevus naevocellularis
503. Which statements about naevus comedonicus are
correct:
a. it belongs to melanocytic naevi
b. it is dirty-brown colored lesion with verrucous
surface
c. it is vascular malformation
d. it consist predominantly of sebaceous glands
e. it is congenital disorder of hair follicles
504. Which statements about naevus sebaceus are
correct:
a. it belongs to melanocytic naevi
b. it is dirty-brown colored lesion with verrucous
surface
c. it is vascular malformation
d. it consist of sebaceous glands
e. it is congenital disorder of hair follicles
505. Which statements about verrucous epidermal
naevus are correct?
a. it belongs to melanocytic naevi
b. it is dirty-brown colored lesion with verrucous
surface
c. it is vascular malformation
d. it consist of sebaceous glands
e. it is congenital disorder of hair follicles
506. Flat dark red naevi, sharply defined, of irregular shape, usually unilateral localized are typical for:
a. naevus coeruleus
b. naevus flammeus
c. naevus comedonicus
d. naevus verrucosus
e. naevus sebaceus
507. What is the basis of development of primary
skin tumors in adenoma sebaceum morbus Bourneville - Pringle?
a. hyperproliferation of sebaceous glands
b. hyperproliferation of connective tissue in pars
papillaris of the dermis
c. hypertrophy of hair follicles
d. hypertrophy of primary vessels
e. epidermal hypertrophy and it´s appendages
508. Correct statements about morbus Recklinghausen
are:
a. buttonhole-like invagination of lesions is
typical
b. Koenen tumors are typical for this disease
c. café au lait macules are present
d. glioma of optic nerve may often occur
e. pregnancy doesn´t worsen disease
509. Soft pedunculated skin-colored nodules on neck
or in intertriginous areas can include:
a. hemangioma
b. lipoma
c. angiofibroma
d. fibroma molle
e. glomus tumor
510. Localization of tumor under the nail can
indicate:
a. lipoma
b. leiomyoma
c. malignant melanoma
d. glomus tumor
e. lymphangiosarkoma
511. Mark correct statement about actinic keratosis:
a. it is precancer
b. it occurs more often in elderly
c. it occurs in areas exposed to sunlight
d. it occurs usually on trunk
e. the surface is greasy, ridged
512. Squamous cell carcinoma may usually develop
from:
a. morbus Paget
b. morbus Bowen
c. actinic keratosis
d. verruca seborrhoica
e. leukoplakia
513. Mark clinical and morphological features about basal cell carcinoma:
a. is benign skin tumor
b. metastases are common
c. the face is the most common site
d. erosions and ulcers may occur
e. elderly people are usually affected
514. Which form of basal cell carcinoma does destroy tissue?
a. ulcus rodens
b. ulcus terebrans
c. basalioma solidum
d. basalioma sclerodermiforme
e. basalioma keloidiforme
515. Choose the appropriate treatment of basal cell carcinoma:
a. systemic corticosteroids
b. surgical excision
c. radiation therapy
d. local cytostatic therapy
e. cryotherapy
516. Erythroplasia Queyrat is disease:
a. of the mucosa of glans penis
b. of the skin and develops from herpes simplex virus infection
c. of the skin and develops from human papilloma virus infection
d. which often develops into squamous cell carcinoma
e. which belongs to obligatory premalignant conditions
517. Squamous cell carcinoma:
a. develops from preexisting actinic keratosis
b. develops from premalignant cutaneous conditions
c. is associated with long – term chemical
exposure
d. occurs after organ transplantation
e. develops from xerodema pigmentosum
518. What should be done with clinically evident
melanoma?
a. probatory excision and radiotherapy according
to the result
b. extirpation and further therapeutic
procedure according to the result of histological examination
c. wide excision including the area of healthy skin
(1-3 cm) depending on the thickness of the tumor
d. most effective is radiation therapy
e. to start cytostatic therapy
519.
Which of
the following layers of the epidermis are lacking in oral cavity mucosa?
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
520. Mark the correct statements relating to the
clinical manifestations of oral cavity mucosa:
a. aphthae typically occur on the mucous membranes
b. aphthae represent thickening of the mucosal
epithelium caused by excessive keratinisation
c. vesicles persist as long as vesicles on the
skin
d. the cover of vesicles mechanically quickly
disrupt
e. there is no itching of oral mucosa
521. Status Fordyce is characterised by:
a. horny cysts on the gums localised
in groups
b. mucous cysts on the palate and labial mucosa
c. ectopic sebaceous glans on labial mucosa, bucal
mucosa, glans penis, inner side of prepucium and labia minora
d. abnormal keratinisation of oral mucosa with
pinhead-sized whitish-yellow papules
e. ectopic sweat glands on labial mucosa, bucal
mucosa, glans penis, on inner side of prepucium and labia minora
522. Mark the correct statements about plicated
tongue (lingua plicata):
a. synonym is geographic tongue
b. it is a common benign clinical condition
c. surphace of tongue mucosa is ridged with deep
fissures
d. may be associated with syndroma Melkersson –
Rosenthal
e. furrows are often initial site of entry
523. Migratory glossitis (lingua geographica) is
characterised by:
a. burning sensation of lesions
b. lesions wax and wane over time
c. migration of clinical findings
d. focal thick whitish coating on tongue
e. focal proliferation of the filliform papillae
on tongue
524. Clinical features of migratory glossitis
(lingua geographica) are:
a. well-demarcated area of erythema with smooth
surface, without whitish coating on keratinising surphace of tongue
b. focal hyperkeratotic papillae which peel off
sometimes and leave erosions behind
c. focal manifestations of lingua villosa nigra
with hypertrophy of filiform papillae
d. bordered round patches with thick whitish-grey
coating
e. well-demarcated areas of erythema leading to
the formation geographical patches
525. Mark the correct statements
about leucokeratosis nicotina palate:
a. belongs to precancerous conditions
b. it is characterized by small grouped macules
and papules of whitish color
c. causes significant subjective problems
d. the condition usually heals spontaneously after
stopping the long-term smoking
e. there are dark red dots in the centre of
whitish lesions formed by mucous glands
526. Etiopathogenesis of lingua villosa nigra is:
a. antibiotic therapy
b. digestive disorders
c. vitamin C deficiency
d. nicotine abuse
e. menopause
527. Mark the areas, where leukoplakia can occur:
a. uvula
b. bottom of tongue
c. lips (labial mucosa)
d. external genitalia
e. palate
528. What is the cause of leukoplakia?
a. chemical irritants
b. chronic irritating cough
c. vitaminsdeficiency
d. chronic mechanical irritation
e. alcohol abuse
529. Assign important characteristic and
differential diagnostic signs of leukoplakia:
a. changes can be found on the buccal mucosa close
to molars, on the tongue- there is typical white net without papules
b. uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal
mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or erode
c. changes can be localized on the oral mucosa,
where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white
hyperkeratosis
d. gray pseudomembranous coatings tightly bounded
to the mucosa
e. painful superficial erosions surrounded by a
narrow erythema, covered by white film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
530. Assign important characteristic and
differential diagnostic signs of lichen ruber:
a. changes can be found on the buccal mucosa close
to molars, on the tongue- there is typical white net without papules
b. uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal
mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or erode
c. changes can be localized on the oral mucosa,
where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white
hyperkeratosis
d. gray pseudomembranous coatings tightly bounded
to the mucosa
e. painful superficial erosions surrounded by a
narrow erythema, covered by white film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
531. Assign important characteristic and
differential diagnostic signs of lupus erythematodes chronicus discoides:
a. changes can be found on the buccal mucosa close
to molars, on the tongue- there is typical white net without papules
b. uniformly white-colored spots on the buccal
mucosa, which may grow, infiltrate or erode
c. changes can be localized on the oral mucosa,
where they form asymptomatic erythematous plaques covered with white
hyperkeratosis
d. gray pseudomembranous coatings tightly bound to
the mucosa
e. painful superficial erosions surrounded by a
narrow erythema, covered by white film on the bucal mucosa and soft palate
532. Mark the correct statements
about glossitis Mller – Hunter:
a. subjective symtom is dry mouth
b. subjective symptom is burning sensation and
pain on spicy foods
c. inflamated hypertrophic red plaques on the surface
of the tongue
d. atrophic plaques with a smooth sufrace at a
later phase
e. vesicles in the final phase
533. Which symptom does occur in
glossitis Mőller – Hunter?
a. dry mouth
b. burning tongue
c. patchy anemisation by shooting out of tongue
d. coated tongue
e. Arndt sign
534. Correct statement about lingua plicata is:
a. localization of symptoms varies
b. tongue surface is highlighted
c. it is one of the first signs of pernicious
anemia
d. sharply defined areas are red
e. it does not cause any difficulties
535. Correct statement about glossitis migrans
(lingua geographica) is:
a. localization of symptoms varies
b. tongue surface is highlighted
c. it is one of the first signs of pernicious
anemia
d. sharply defined areas are red
e. it does not cause any difficulties
536. Correct statement about glossitis Mőller –
Hunter is:
a. localization of symptoms varies
b. tongue surface is highlighted
c. it is one of the first signs of pernicious
anemia
d. sharply defined areas are red
e. it does not cause any difficulties
537. Typical signs of Sjögren syndroma are:
a. tongue papillae atrophy
b. interstitial glossitis
c. burning tongue
d. dry mouth and conjunctiva
e. dry skin
538. Etiopathogenesis of Sjögren syndroma is:
a. underproduction of salivary glands
b. underproduction of lacrimal glands
c. underproduction of sweat glands
d. atypical keratinisation of the mucosa
e. atrophic process
539. What
does not belong to the clinical features of Sjögren syndroma?
a. xeropthalmy
b. leukoplakia
c. xerostomy
d. xeroderma
e. polyarthritis
540. Mark the correct statements about cheilitis
glandularis simplex:
a. it leads to inflamation of the glands in lip
mucosa
b. it leads to blockage of small mucous lip glands
c. small red papules with a small red dot in the
center on lips
d. secretion of glassy mucus
e. complete obstruction of the small cysts leads
to occurrence of big cysts
541. What is the clinical features of cheilitis granulomatosa?
a. lips tend to become red, swollen and tough
b. lower lip is affected frequently
c. lips can bulge out later
d. upper lip is affected frequently
e. finally occurs lichenification of the lip
542. What are the symptoms of Melkersson – Rosenthal
syndroma?
a. cheilitis granulomatosa
b. paresis nervi facialis
c. lingua plicata
d. tonsillitis
e. blepharochalasis
543. In which cases is gingivitis hyperplastica
found?
a. xerostomia
b. hydantoin treatment
c. long- term treatment with corticoids
d. during pregnancy
e. result of focal fluoridation of teeth
544. Mark the correct statements
about stomatitis ulceromembranosa:
a. synonymum is stomatitis Plaut-Vincent
b. increased salivation, foetor ex ore, fever
c. necrotic ulcers
d. gingival mucosa is never affected
e. deep tissue destruction in the worst phase
545. What are the common manifestations of aphthous
disease?
a. vesicles persist long
b. painful, sharply defined erosions or ulceration
c. red inflamatory edge
d. tendency to clustering and grouping
e. white coat on the surface of the aphths
546. Mark the correct statements about Bednář
aphthous disease:
a. it is a viral disease
b. it occurs in gastrointestinal disorders
c. superficial ulcerations of the hard palate are
present
d. it occurs after rough wipping of the mouth in
infants
e. aphtae are round-shaped
547. What are characteristic symptoms of chronic
stomatitis aphthosa recurrens?
a. they couse the food intake problems
b. they couse speech problems
c. they are painless
d. they are painful
e. they tend to recur for many years
548. What are characteristic symptoms of morbus
Behçet?
a. stomatitis catarrhalis
b. ulcers of the oral cavity mucosa and genitals
c. they affect mucous
membranes, skin, eyes and centra nervous system
d. they cause uveitis or iridocyclitis, there is a risk of blindness
e. non-specific systemic symptoms are not present